JIPMER MBBS Mock Question Paper with Answer Key

Pattern:

SectionNo. of QuestionsMarksQuestion Type
Physics5050MCQ, single correct answer
Chemistry5050MCQ, single correct answer
Biology6060MCQ, single correct answer
English & Logical Reasoning2020MCQ
Quantitative Reasoning / Aptitude2020MCQ

Total Questions: 200
Total Marks: 200
Time: 2 hours 30 minutes
Marking: +1 per correct, 0 for incorrect

Section 1 – Physics (Questions 1–50)

Topics: Mechanics, Thermodynamics, Optics, Electrodynamics, Modern Physics


Sample Questions (1–50):

  1. A particle moves along a circle of radius 2 m with constant speed 4 m/s. Its centripetal acceleration is:
    a) 8 m/s² b) 4 m/s² c) 16 m/s² d) 2 m/s²
  2. A block slides down a frictionless incline of 30°. Acceleration of the block:
    a) g/2 b) g/√2 c) g/2√3 d) g
  3. Two identical springs are connected in series. Effective spring constant = k. If one spring breaks, new spring constant = ?
    a) k b) 2k c) k/2 d) k/4
  4. A 1 kg mass is attached to a spring (k = 100 N/m). Time period of oscillation = ?
    a) 0.2 s b) 0.628 s c) 1 s d) 0.5 s
  5. A photon has energy 4.14 × 10⁻¹⁹ J. Its wavelength is:
    a) 300 nm b) 480 nm c) 500 nm d) 600 nm
  6. A metal rod of length 1 m expands by 0.001 m on heating. Linear expansion coefficient = ?
    a) 1 ×10⁻³ b) 1×10⁻⁴ c) 1×10⁻⁵ d) 1×10⁻⁶
  7. The work done by a conservative force along a closed path is:
    a) 0 b) Positive c) Negative d) Depends on path
  8. A capacitor of 10 μF is charged to 100 V. Energy stored = ?
    a) 0.05 J b) 0.1 J c) 0.2 J d) 0.5 J
  9. A projectile is launched at 60° with speed 20 m/s. Maximum height = ?
    a) 15 m b) 10 m c) 20 m d) 30 m
  10. Two identical point charges are separated by distance r. If distance is halved, electrostatic force = ?
    a) 2F b) 4F c) F/2 d) F/4
  11. A lens forms a real image twice the size of the object. Object distance = ? (f = 20 cm)
    a) 40 cm b) 30 cm c) 60 cm d) 20 cm
  12. A wire of resistance 10 Ω carries 2 A current. Power dissipated = ?
    a) 20 W b) 40 W c) 10 W d) 50 W
  13. A body falls from height 80 m. Time to reach ground ignoring air resistance:
    a) 4 s b) 5 s c) 6 s d) 8 s
  14. Ratio of kinetic energies of electron and proton moving at same speed = ?
    a) 1:1 b) 1:1836 c) 1836:1 d) 1:2000
  15. The current in an RL circuit reaches 63% of its final value in:
    a) L/R b) R/L c) 1/R d) 1/L
  16. The period of a simple pendulum on Earth = 2 s. If taken to a planet with g’ = 2g, period = ?
    a) 1 s b) 2 s c) √2 s d) 4 s
  17. Intensity of light is proportional to:
    a) Amplitude² b) Frequency² c) Wavelength² d) Velocity²
  18. Two waves of same amplitude and frequency interfere destructively. Resultant amplitude = ?
    a) 0 b) A c) 2A d) A/2
  19. In photoelectric effect, increasing intensity of light:
    a) Increases current b) Increases stopping potential c) Changes wavelength d) Decreases current
  20. A particle moves under acceleration a = kx. Nature of motion:
    a) Simple harmonic b) Uniform c) Uniformly accelerated d) Circular
  21. Electric field inside a conductor = ?
    a) 0 b) Maximum c) Depends on shape d) Minimum
  22. Magnetic flux through a loop varies with time. Induced emf = ?
    a) dΦ/dt b) Φ² c) 1/Φ d) Zero
  23. Escape velocity on planet = 10 km/s. Orbital velocity = ?
    a) 10 km/s b) 5 km/s c) 7.07 km/s d) 20 km/s
  24. A lens of focal length 20 cm placed 10 cm from object forms image:
    a) Real, inverted b) Virtual, magnified c) Virtual, diminished d) Real, magnified
  25. Work function of metal = 2 eV. Minimum frequency of light to emit electrons:
    a) 4.8×10¹⁴ Hz b) 5×10¹⁴ Hz c) 6×10¹⁴ Hz d) 3×10¹⁴ Hz
  26. Energy of 1 mol of photons, λ = 500 nm → ?
    a) 239 kJ b) 240 kJ c) 300 kJ d) 200 kJ
  27. Newton’s rings formed in reflection: radius of 5th dark ring = 2 mm. Wavelength = ?
    a) 600 nm b) 500 nm c) 400 nm d) 700 nm
  28. Pressure at depth h in liquid density ρ:
    a) ρgh b) ρg/h c) h/ρg d) ρ/g
  29. Heat capacity of gas at constant pressure = 20 J/K, constant volume = ?
    a) 10 J/K b) 15 J/K c) 25 J/K d) 30 J/K
  30. A rod rotates in magnetic field. Induced emf ∝
    a) Angular velocity b) Square of angular velocity c) 1/angular velocity d) √angular velocity
  31. A particle of mass m moving at speed v. De Broglie wavelength = ?
    a) h/mv b) hv c) h/m d) √(h/mv)
  32. In uniform circular motion, tangential acceleration = ?
    a) 0 b) v²/r c) v/r d) r/v²
  33. Refractive index n = ?
    a) c/v b) v/c c) vλ d) cλ
  34. Doppler effect: Source moves towards stationary observer, frequency observed:
    a) Increases b) Decreases c) Zero d) Same
  35. Capacitor in series: effective capacitance = ?
    a) 1/C = 1/C1 + 1/C2 b) C1 + C2 c) C1 – C2 d) √(C1C2)
  36. A wire carries current I. Magnetic field at distance r from wire = ?
    a) μ₀I/2πr b) μ₀I/4πr c) μ₀I/r² d) μ₀I²/r
  37. Ohm’s law: I ∝ ?
    a) V b) 1/V c) R d) 1/R
  38. Power in AC circuit = Vrms × Irms × cos φ. φ = ?
    a) Phase difference b) Frequency c) Resistance d) Capacitance
  39. Plane mirror: Image distance = ?
    a) Object distance b) Twice object distance c) Half d) Zero
  40. Critical angle of glass-air interface = 42°. Refractive index = ?
    a) 1.5 b) 1.33 c) 1.25 d) 1.42
  41. Two resistors 4 Ω and 6 Ω in series. Equivalent resistance = ?
    a) 10 Ω b) 2.4 Ω c) 12 Ω d) 6 Ω
  42. Work-energy theorem: Work done = ?
    a) Change in kinetic energy b) Change in potential energy c) Force × distance d) Zero
  43. Law of conservation of momentum valid if:
    a) No external force b) Constant mass c) Both a & b d) None
  44. Projectile motion: Maximum horizontal range occurs at angle = ?
    a) 45° b) 30° c) 60° d) 90°
  45. Thermodynamics: ΔU = Q – W. If ΔU = 0 → process = ?
    a) Isothermal b) Adiabatic c) Isobaric d) Isochoric
  46. Ideal gas law: PV = nRT. If T doubles, P constant → V = ?
    a) 2V b) V/2 c) V d) 4V
  47. Escape velocity on Earth = 11.2 km/s. Escape velocity on planet (mass 4×, radius 2×) = ?
    a) 11.2 km/s b) 15.8 km/s c) 22.4 km/s d) 7.9 km/s
  48. Half-life of a radioactive substance = 10 h. Fraction remaining after 30 h = ?
    a) 1/8 b) 1/4 c) 1/2 d) 1/16
  49. Photoelectric effect: Minimum frequency depends on:
    a) Work function b) Intensity c) Distance d) Wavelength
  50. Oscillations: Tension in string increases → frequency = ?
    a) Increases b) Decreases c) Constant d) Zero

Section 2 – Chemistry (Questions 51–100)

Topics: Physical Chemistry, Organic Chemistry, Inorganic Chemistry, Analytical Chemistry


51. Which molecule has sp² hybridization?
a) CH₄ b) BF₃ c) NH₃ d) H₂O

52. pH of 0.01 M HCl solution = ?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

53. Which is the strongest acid?
a) HF b) HCl c) HBr d) HI

54. Number of stereoisomers for 2-butanol = ?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

55. Which element is a halogen?
a) Br b) Mg c) Al d) K

56. Bond order of O₂ molecule = ?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

57. Electronegativity decreases down a group due to:
a) Increased atomic radius b) Increased nuclear charge c) Increased electron affinity d) None

58. Solubility of gases in water decreases with:
a) Temperature ↑ b) Temperature ↓ c) Pressure ↑ d) Pressure ↓

59. ΔH°f of H₂O(l) = ?
a) –286 kJ/mol b) –242 kJ/mol c) –75 kJ/mol d) 0

60. Rate of reaction doubles when temperature increases by 10°C. This suggests:
a) Arrhenius behavior b) Catalysis c) Zero-order kinetics d) Inhibition

61. Concentration of NaOH to neutralize 50 mL of 0.1 M HCl = ?
a) 0.05 M b) 0.1 M c) 0.2 M d) 0.5 M

62. Electron configuration of Fe³⁺ = ?
a) [Ar] 3d⁵ b) [Ar] 3d⁶ c) [Ar] 3d⁴ d) [Ar] 3d³

63. Ligand that forms the most stable complex with Fe³⁺:
a) H₂O b) NH₃ c) CN⁻ d) Cl⁻

64. Electrode potential of Zn²⁺/Zn = –0.76 V. Fe²⁺/Fe = –0.44 V. Which will get oxidized?
a) Zn b) Fe c) Both d) None

65. Benzene undergoes nitration. Major product is:
a) Nitrobenzene b) Ortho-nitrobenzene c) Para-nitrobenzene d) Meta-nitrobenzene

66. Compound with formula C₂H₄O can be:
a) Ethanol b) Acetaldehyde c) Acetone d) All of the above

67. Number of moles in 44 g of CO₂ = ?
a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

68. Which is paramagnetic?
a) O₂ b) N₂ c) CO₂ d) H₂

69. Redox reaction: 2Fe²⁺ + Cl₂ → 2Fe³⁺ + 2Cl⁻. Oxidizing agent = ?
a) Fe²⁺ b) Cl₂ c) Fe³⁺ d) Cl⁻

70. ΔS for reversible isothermal expansion = ?
a) nR ln(V₂/V₁) b) ΔH/T c) ΔU/T d) 0

71. Which alkane has branching at second carbon?
a) n-butane b) isobutane c) propane d) pentane

72. SN1 reaction rate depends on:
a) Substrate concentration only b) Nucleophile only c) Both d) Temperature only

73. Number of π-bonds in benzene = ?
a) 3 b) 6 c) 0 d) 9

74. Which oxide is amphoteric?
a) Al₂O₃ b) CO₂ c) SO₃ d) Na₂O

75. Strongest oxidizing agent among:
a) H₂O₂ b) KMnO₄ c) Cl₂ d) O₃

76. Boiling point of water is elevated due to:
a) Hydrogen bonding b) London forces c) Dipole-induced dipole d) Covalent bonding

77. Hybridization in BF₃ = ?
a) sp³ b) sp² c) sp d) dsp²

78. Which species is Lewis acid?
a) NH₃ b) BF₃ c) OH⁻ d) Cl⁻

79. Hydrolysis of ester under acidic conditions gives:
a) Alcohol + Carboxylic acid b) Alcohol only c) Acid only d) Ether

80. In galvanic cell, anode reaction = ?
a) Oxidation b) Reduction c) Both d) None

81. If Kc > 1, reaction favors:
a) Products b) Reactants c) Equilibrium d) Cannot say

82. pKa of acetic acid = 4.76. Its Ka = ?
a) 1.74×10⁻⁵ b) 2.0×10⁻⁴ c) 1×10⁻³ d) 1×10⁻⁴

83. Which compound shows tautomerism?
a) Acetone b) Ethanol c) Propane d) Methanol

84. Bond angle in water molecule = ?
a) 104.5° b) 109.5° c) 120° d) 180°

85. Gas law: At constant T, P ∝ ?
a) 1/V b) V c) V² d) √V

86. Colligative property not dependent on:
a) Nature of solute b) Number of particles c) Temperature d) Concentration

87. Which salt is soluble in water?
a) AgCl b) NaCl c) PbSO₄ d) BaSO₄

88. Common ion effect decreases:
a) Solubility b) pH c) Density d) Vapor pressure

89. Order of decreasing atomic radius: Na, K, Mg, Al
a) K > Na > Mg > Al b) Na > K > Al > Mg c) Al > Mg > Na > K d) Mg > Al > Na > K

90. Reaction: 2KMnO₄ → K₂MnO₄ + MnO₂ + O₂. Type = ?
a) Disproportionation b) Redox c) Substitution d) Combustion

91. Number of σ-bonds in ethane = ?
a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

92. Major product of CH₃CH₂Br + KOH (aq) = ?
a) CH₂=CH₂ b) CH₃CH₂OH c) CH₃CH₂OCH₃ d) CH₃CH₃

93. Which acid is stronger?
a) HClO₄ b) HClO₃ c) HClO₂ d) HClO

94. Number of valence electrons in SO₄²⁻ = ?
a) 32 b) 34 c) 36 d) 30

95. Oxidation state of Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇ = ?
a) +6 b) +3 c) +2 d) +4

96. Which compound is aromatic?
a) Benzene b) Cyclobutadiene c) Cyclooctatetraene d) Methane

97. Hybridization of carbon in ethyne = ?
a) sp³ b) sp² c) sp d) dsp²

98. For a reaction: ln k vs 1/T is a straight line. Slope = ?
a) –Ea/R b) Ea/R c) ΔH/R d) ΔS/R

99. If ΔG° < 0, reaction is:
a) Spontaneous b) Non-spontaneous c) At equilibrium d) Endothermic

100. Number of structural isomers for C₄H₁₀ = ?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5


Section 3 – Biology (Questions 101–160)

Topics: Human Physiology, Genetics, Botany, Zoology, Ecology, Biotechnology


101. Which part of nephron is impermeable to water?
a) Proximal convoluted tubule b) Distal convoluted tubule c) Loop of Henle ascending limb d) Collecting duct

102. Hormone that stimulates gluconeogenesis in liver:
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Cortisol d) Thyroxine

103. Functional unit of kidney:
a) Nephron b) Alveolus c) Neuron d) Sarcomere

104. ABO blood group inheritance follows:
a) Codominance b) Complete dominance c) Incomplete dominance d) Recessive inheritance

105. During aerobic respiration, total ATP produced per glucose ≈
a) 36–38 b) 30–32 c) 28–30 d) 40–42

106. Enzyme that converts angiotensin I → angiotensin II:
a) Renin b) ACE c) Aldosterone d) ADH

107. Primary site of photosynthesis:
a) Chloroplast b) Mitochondria c) Nucleus d) Ribosome

108. Organism with coelom, segmented body, and bilateral symmetry:
a) Earthworm b) Hydra c) Sponge d) Starfish

109. DNA replication is:
a) Semi-conservative b) Conservative c) Dispersive d) Random

110. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium requires:
a) Large population b) Random mating c) No mutation d) All of the above

111. Oxygen dissociation curve of hemoglobin shifts to right due to:
a) Decrease in CO₂ b) Increase in temperature c) Decrease in H⁺ d) Decrease in 2,3-BPG

112. Organ that stores bile:
a) Gall bladder b) Liver c) Pancreas d) Stomach

113. Genetic disorder caused by trisomy 21:
a) Down syndrome b) Turner syndrome c) Klinefelter syndrome d) Patau syndrome

114. Human liver performs all EXCEPT:
a) Glycogen storage b) Detoxification c) Protein synthesis d) Insulin production

115. Male gamete in plants:
a) Pollen b) Ovule c) Egg d) Zygote

116. Maximum absorption of light for photosynthesis occurs in:
a) Blue and red regions b) Green c) Yellow d) Infrared

117. Functional group of amino acids:
a) Amino and carboxyl b) Carbonyl only c) Hydroxyl only d) Phosphate only

118. Human enzyme that digests starch:
a) Amylase b) Lipase c) Protease d) Pepsin

119. Neurotransmitter for parasympathetic nervous system:
a) Acetylcholine b) Adrenaline c) Dopamine d) Serotonin

120. Plant tissue for water conduction:
a) Xylem b) Phloem c) Collenchyma d) Parenchyma

121. Blood flow through heart: sequence starting from body:
a) Vena cava → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Lungs → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Body
b) Vena cava → Right atrium → Left ventricle → Lungs → Left atrium → Right ventricle → Body
c) Right ventricle → Right atrium → Lungs → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Body
d) Right atrium → Right ventricle → Left atrium → Lungs → Left ventricle → Body

122. Human pancreatic hormone that decreases blood sugar:
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Somatostatin d) Cortisol

123. Structure forming blood-brain barrier:
a) Astrocytes b) Oligodendrocytes c) Microglia d) Schwann cells

124. Primary endosperm in monocots is:
a) Triploid b) Diploid c) Haploid d) Tetraploid

125. Human chromosome number:
a) 46 b) 44 c) 48 d) 42

126. First line of defense in immune system:
a) Skin and mucosa b) Antibodies c) T-cells d) B-cells

127. Hormone regulating circadian rhythm:
a) Melatonin b) Cortisol c) Adrenaline d) Thyroxine

128. Which vitamin is water-soluble?
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin A c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin E

129. Ovulation occurs during:
a) Day 14 of menstrual cycle b) Day 7 c) Day 1 d) Day 28

130. Example of dioecious plant:
a) Papaya b) Wheat c) Rice d) Maize

131. Which part of brain controls balance?
a) Cerebellum b) Cerebrum c) Medulla d) Hypothalamus

132. Calvin cycle occurs in:
a) Stroma of chloroplast b) Thylakoid c) Cytoplasm d) Mitochondria

133. Bacterial genetic recombination via bacteriophage = ?
a) Transduction b) Transformation c) Conjugation d) Binary fission

134. Gene expression: mRNA → protein = ?
a) Translation b) Transcription c) Replication d) Mutation

135. Hardy-Weinberg: allele frequency of p = 0.7. Frequency of heterozygotes = ?
a) 0.42 b) 0.21 c) 0.49 d) 0.7

136. Respiration pathway in mitochondria producing maximum ATP:
a) Oxidative phosphorylation b) Glycolysis c) Fermentation d) TCA cycle

137. Examples of biotic components in ecosystem:
a) Plants, animals, microbes b) Sunlight, water c) Soil, rocks d) Air, water

138. Enzyme that converts fibrinogen → fibrin:
a) Thrombin b) Trypsin c) Pepsin d) Amylase

139. Mendel’s law of independent assortment applies to:
a) Dihybrid crosses b) Monohybrid crosses c) Trihybrid crosses d) Selfing

140. Most abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere:
a) N₂ b) O₂ c) CO₂ d) Ar

141. Rhizobium bacteria fix nitrogen in:
a) Root nodules of legumes b) Soil c) Leaves d) Stems

142. Human liver stores:
a) Glycogen b) Glucose c) Fat d) Protein

143. Action potential propagation involves:
a) Na⁺ influx and K⁺ efflux b) K⁺ influx c) Cl⁻ efflux d) Ca²⁺ influx only

144. Example of C₃ plant:
a) Wheat b) Maize c) Sugarcane d) Sorghum

145. Genetic material in viruses:
a) DNA or RNA b) Only DNA c) Only RNA d) Protein only

146. Example of a protist:
a) Amoeba b) Euglena c) Paramecium d) All of the above

147. Autoimmune disease:
a) Type 1 diabetes b) Malaria c) Tuberculosis d) Cholera

148. Secondary messenger in hormone signaling:
a) cAMP b) ATP c) ADP d) GTP

149. Marine biome with highest biodiversity:
a) Coral reef b) Open ocean c) Mangrove d) Estuary

150. Function of Golgi apparatus:
a) Protein modification and packaging b) ATP production c) Photosynthesis d) DNA replication

151. Hardy-Weinberg: p² + 2pq + q² = 1. If q = 0.2, frequency of homozygous dominant = ?
a) 0.64 b) 0.16 c) 0.36 d) 0.4

152. RNA differs from DNA by:
a) Ribose sugar b) Thymine replaced by uracil c) Single-stranded d) All of the above

153. Type of immunity after vaccination:
a) Artificial active b) Natural active c) Passive d) Innate

154. Example of endothermic reaction:
a) Photosynthesis b) Combustion c) Respiration d) Neutralization

155. Site of gas exchange in human lungs:
a) Alveoli b) Bronchioles c) Trachea d) Bronchi

156. Largest human organ:
a) Skin b) Liver c) Brain d) Heart

157. Nitrogen cycle: ammonia → nitrite → nitrate = ?
a) Nitrification b) Denitrification c) Fixation d) Ammonification

158. Type of connective tissue in tendons:
a) Dense regular b) Loose connective c) Cartilage d) Bone

159. Pollination by insects = ?
a) Entomophily b) Anemophily c) Hydrophily d) Zoophily

160. Genetic engineering: plasmid used as:
a) Vector b) Host c) Enzyme d) Gene product


Section 4 – English & Logical Reasoning (Questions 161–180)

Topics: Vocabulary, Grammar, Synonyms/Antonyms, Sentence Completion, Logical Sequences, Analytical Reasoning


161. Choose the correct synonym of “Abundant”:
a) Scarce b) Plenty c) Rare d) Minimal

162. Find the odd one out: Apple, Mango, Orange, Carrot
a) Apple b) Mango c) Orange d) Carrot

163. If all cats are animals and some animals are dogs, which statement is correct?
a) Some cats are dogs b) All dogs are cats c) No cats are dogs d) Some animals are cats

164. Choose the correct spelling:
a) Accomodate b) Accommodate c) Acommodate d) Acomodate

165. Complete the analogy: Dog : Bark :: Cat : ?
a) Meow b) Mew c) Growl d) Roar

166. Choose the antonym of “Opaque”:
a) Translucent b) Dense c) Solid d) Thick

167. Fill in the blank: Despite his ____, he managed to finish the marathon.
a) Fatigue b) Excitement c) Joy d) Energy

168. Find the next number in series: 2, 6, 12, 20, ?
a) 28 b) 30 c) 32 d) 36

169. Statement: “All doctors are educated. Some educated people are not doctors.” Which conclusion is correct?
a) Some doctors are educated b) All educated are doctors c) No educated are doctors d) Cannot be determined

170. Rearrange to form a meaningful sentence:

  1. the 2. was 3. fastest 4. cheetah 5. animal
    a) The cheetah was fastest animal b) The fastest animal was cheetah c) Fastest was the animal cheetah d) Cheetah was the fastest animal

171. Choose the correct word to complete: He is very good ___ mathematics.
a) in b) at c) on d) for

172. Odd one out: Square, Rectangle, Rhombus, Triangle
a) Square b) Rectangle c) Rhombus d) Triangle

173. Find the missing number: 7, 14, 28, 56, ?
a) 70 b) 112 c) 98 d) 84

174. If BOOK is coded as CNPL, how is TREE coded?
a) USFF b) USGF c) UQFF d) USGF

175. Synonym of “Loquacious”:
a) Talkative b) Silent c) Angry d) Humble

176. Arrange words in alphabetical order: Zeal, Yield, Xylophone, Azure
a) Azure, Xylophone, Yield, Zeal b) Azure, Yield, Xylophone, Zeal c) Xylophone, Yield, Zeal, Azure d) Yield, Azure, Zeal, Xylophone

177. Complete the sentence: Neither the teacher nor the students ___ aware of the schedule change.
a) was b) were c) is d) be

178. Logical reasoning: If all roses are flowers and some flowers fade quickly, which is true?
a) Some roses fade quickly b) All roses fade quickly c) No rose fades quickly d) Cannot be determined

179. Coding-decoding: If CAT → DBU, DOG → ?
a) EPH b) EOH c) EPH d) EOI

180. Complete analogy: Finger : Hand :: Leaf : ?
a) Branch b) Tree c) Root d) Stem

Section 5 – Quantitative Aptitude (Questions 181–200) – High Difficulty

Topics: Arithmetic, Algebra, Geometry, Mensuration, Ratio-Proportion, Data Interpretation


181. A can complete a task in 12 days and B in 16 days. They work together for 4 days, then B leaves. How many more days will A take to complete the work?
a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

182. A cylindrical water tank of radius 3 m is filled at the rate of 5 m³/hour. How long will it take to fill up a tank of height 10 m?
a) 6.28 hr b) 18.84 hr c) 12.56 hr d) 10 hr

183. The sum of the squares of two numbers is 290. Their difference of squares is 40. Find the numbers.
a) 17, 13 b) 18, 14 c) 15, 11 d) 19, 13

184. A boat goes 30 km downstream in 2 hours and returns in 3 hours. Speed of the stream = ?
a) 2 km/h b) 3 km/h c) 4 km/h d) 5 km/h

185. Solve for x: 2x27x+3=02x^2 – 7x + 3 = 02×2–7x+3=0.
a) 1, 1.5 b) 3, 0.5 c) 1, 3 d) 0.5, 3

186. A sum of money is divided among A, B, and C such that their shares are in ratio 2:3:4. If the total is ₹1800, find B’s share.
a) ₹600 b) ₹500 c) ₹450 d) ₹400

187. A cone has base radius 7 cm and height 24 cm. Find its slant height and lateral surface area.
a) 25 cm, 550 cm² b) 25 cm, 550π cm² c) 24 cm, 500π cm² d) 24 cm, 500 cm²

188. A sum of ₹10,000 is invested at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded annually. Amount after 2 years = ?
a) ₹12,100 b) ₹11,000 c) ₹12,000 d) ₹11,500

189. The average of five numbers is 20. If one number 30 is removed, the new average = ?
a) 18.75 b) 19 c) 20.5 d) 19.5

190. Solve the equation: x2+5x14=0x^2 + 5x – 14 = 0x2+5x–14=0.
a) 2, –7 b) –2, 7 c) 7, –2 d) –7, 2

191. Two numbers are in ratio 7:9. If their HCF is 5, find the numbers.
a) 35, 45 b) 28, 36 c) 21, 27 d) 14, 18

192. A box contains 6 red, 4 green, and 5 blue balls. Two balls are drawn randomly. Probability that one is red and one is blue = ?
a) 5/15 b) 4/15 c) 12/91 d) 24/105

193. A sequence: 3, 8, 15, 24, ?. Find the next number.
a) 33 b) 35 c) 36 d) 40

194. A cylinder and a cone have the same base radius 5 cm and same height 12 cm. Find the ratio of their volumes.
a) 3:1 b) 2:1 c) 1:3 d) 1:2

195. Areas of two squares are in ratio 25:36. Find the ratio of their perimeters.
a) 5:6 b) 25:36 c) 36:25 d) 6:5

196. The sum of squares of three consecutive numbers is 365. Find the numbers.
a) 10, 11, 12 b) 11, 12, 13 c) 12, 13, 14 d) 9, 10, 11

197. Solve for x: x2+x20=0x^2 + x – 20 = 0x2+x–20=0.
a) 4, –5 b) –4, 5 c) 5, –4 d) –5, 4

198. A man invests ₹5000 in two schemes at 8% and 10% per annum simple interest. If the total interest for 1 year = ₹450, how much was invested at 10%?
a) ₹2500 b) ₹3000 c) ₹2000 d) ₹1500

199. A rectangular hall has length:width = 5:3. Perimeter = 240 m. A semicircular stage with radius equal to the width is constructed at one end. Find the total area.
a) 4500 m² b) 4600 m² c) 4700 m² d) 4800 m²

200. A sum of money triples itself in 10 years under compound interest. Find the rate of interest per annum.
a) 11.6% b) 12% c) 12.1% d) 10.5%

Disclaimer:
This mock question paper is for educational and practice purposes only. It is created based on previous years’ trends, and does not guarantee exact replication of the actual JIPMER MBBS exam questions. Users should use it for practice and self-assessment only.

Answer Key – JIPMER MBBS Mock Paper (1–200)

Q.NoAnswerQ.NoAnswerQ.NoAnswerQ.NoAnswer
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