• Total Questions: 100
• Sections: Physics (1–30), Chemistry (31–65), Biology (66–100)
• Question Type: MCQs (multiple-choice, four options each)
• High-difficulty conceptual + reasoning based
• Text-only format for website or PDF use

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Delhi Paramedical Entrance Mock Paper – 100 Questions

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Section 1 – Physics (Questions 1–30)

1. A particle moves with acceleration $a = 3t + 2$a=3t+2 m/s². If initial velocity = 2 m/s, displacement after 4 s = ?
a) 36 m b) 40 m c) 44 m d) 48 m

2. Two resistors of 10 Ω and 20 Ω are in parallel across 30 V. Power dissipated in 10 Ω resistor = ?
a) 60 W b) 90 W c) 45 W d) 50 W

3. Refractive index of water = 1.33. Angle of incidence = 60°. Angle of refraction = ?
a) 45° b) 46° c) 47° d) 48°

4. Simple pendulum of length 1 m in elevator accelerating upward at 3 m/s². Period = ?
a) 2.02 s b) 2.01 s c) 2.00 s d) 1.98 s

5. Escape velocity from planet of mass 8×10²⁴ kg and radius 6×10⁶ m = ?
a) 11 km/s b) 10.5 km/s c) 12 km/s d) 13 km/s

6. Work done to move charge 5 μC through 120 V = ?
a) 0.6 J b) 0.5 J c) 0.4 J d) 0.3 J

7. Path difference for constructive interference = ?
a) λ b) λ/2 c) 3λ/2 d) 2λ

8. Wire length doubles, resistance initially 3 Ω. New resistance = ?
a) 12 Ω b) 9 Ω c) 6 Ω d) 8 Ω

9. Charge q produces E at distance r. If distance halved, E becomes?
a) 4E b) 2E c) E/2 d) E/4

10. Capacitors 6 μF and 12 μF in series. Effective capacitance = ?
a) 4 μF b) 18 μF c) 5 μF d) 6 μF

11. SHM amplitude 0.25 m, ω = 6 rad/s. Maximum speed = ?
a) 1.5 m/s b) 1.2 m/s c) 1.0 m/s d) 1.8 m/s

12. Photon λ = 500 nm. Energy = ?
a) 3.97×10⁻¹⁹ J b) 3.98×10⁻¹⁹ J c) 4.0×10⁻¹⁹ J d) 3.9×10⁻¹⁹ J

13. Source frequency 1000 Hz, moving toward listener at 30 m/s, v=340 m/s. Doppler shift = ?
a) 88 Hz b) 85 Hz c) 90 Hz d) 92 Hz

14. Rod length L rotates about center. Moment of inertia about end = ?
a) (1/3)mL² b) (1/12)mL² c) (1/2)mL² d) (1/6)mL²

15. Masses m and 4m connected by spring. Natural frequency = ?
a) √(k/2m) b) √(k/m) c) √(4k/m) d) √(k/5m)

16. Pressure at depth h in liquid of density ρ = ?
a) ρgh b) ρg/h c) gh/ρ d) ρg²h

17. Convex lens f = 20 cm, object at 30 cm. Image distance = ?
a) 60 cm b) 40 cm c) 50 cm d) 45 cm

18. Blackbody at 5500 K. λ_max = ?
a) 500 nm b) 510 nm c) 520 nm d) 530 nm

19. Coil N=100, area 0.02 m², flux change 0.05 Wb/s. Induced EMF = ?
a) 1 V b) 0.5 V c) 0.8 V d) 0.9 V

20. Half-life = 5 hr. Fraction remaining after 15 hr = ?
a) 1/8 b) 1/4 c) 1/2 d) 1/16

21. Charges +q and –q separated by 2a. Potential at midpoint = ?
a) 0 b) q/4πε₀a c) q/2πε₀a d) –q/4πε₀a

22. Magnetic field at center of loop radius r, current I = ?
a) μ₀I/2r b) μ₀I/2πr c) μ₀I/4πr d) μ₀I/r

23. Force F=20 N along incline 30°, distance 5 m. Work done = ?
a) 50 J b) 40 J c) 60 J d) 45 J

24. Young’s modulus = ?
a) Stress/Strain b) Strain/Stress c) Stress×Strain d) Stress+Strain

25. Wave amplitude doubled. Power increases by factor = ?
a) 4 b) 2 c) 1/2 d) 1/4

26. Spherical capacitor, inner radius a, outer b. Capacitance = ?
a) 4πε₀ab/(b–a) b) 4πε₀(a–b)/ab c) 4πε₀(a+b) d) 4πε₀√(ab)

27. LC circuit, L=4 mH, C=50 μF. Resonance frequency = ?
a) 356 Hz b) 400 Hz c) 350 Hz d) 360 Hz

28. Two lenses f₁=10 cm, f₂=20 cm in contact. Effective focal length = ?
a) 6.67 cm b) 12 cm c) 15 cm d) 18 cm

29. EM wave frequency 6×10¹⁴ Hz. λ = ?
a) 5×10⁻⁷ m b) 4×10⁻⁷ m c) 6×10⁻⁷ m d) 3×10⁻⁷ m

30. Ideal gas, 2 moles, T=300 K. Internal energy = ?
a) 7.44 kJ b) 5 kJ c) 4.5 kJ d) 6 kJ

Section 2 – Chemistry (Questions 31–65)

31. Molecular formula of a hydrocarbon containing 85.7% C and 14.3% H = ?
a) C₂H₆ b) C₆H₆ c) C₄H₁₀ d) C₃H₈

32. Oxidation state of Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇ = ?
a) +6 b) +3 c) +2 d) +4

33. pH of 0.01 M HCl = ?
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4

34. Molecule capable of hydrogen bonding = ?
a) NH₃ b) CH₄ c) CO₂ d) C₂H₆

35. Volume of 0.5 M NaOH to neutralize 50 mL 0.2 M HCl = ?
a) 20 mL b) 10 mL c) 25 mL d) 50 mL

36. Rate of first-order reaction doubles. New half-life = ?
a) Half b) Same c) Double d) Quadruple

37. ΔH° of 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O = –572 kJ. Energy per mole of H₂ = ?
a) 286 kJ b) 572 kJ c) 143 kJ d) 1144 kJ

38. Amphoteric oxide = ?
a) ZnO b) Na₂O c) CaO d) MgO

39. Molecular formula of acetic acid = ?
a) C₂H₄O₂ b) CH₃OH c) C₂H₆O d) C₃H₆O

40. Hybridization of carbon in C₂H₂ = ?
a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) sp³d

41. Solubility of AgCl (Ksp = 1.6×10⁻¹⁰) = ?
a) 1.26×10⁻⁵ M b) 1×10⁻⁵ M c) 2×10⁻⁵ M d) 1.6×10⁻⁵ M

42. Reaction rate doubles with 10°C rise. Activation energy = ?
a) 42 kJ/mol b) 50 kJ/mol c) 55 kJ/mol d) 60 kJ/mol

43. Strongest acid = ?
a) HClO₄ b) HClO₃ c) HClO₂ d) HClO

44. Least electronegative element = ?
a) Na b) O c) F d) Cl

45. Highest electron affinity = ?
a) F b) Cl c) O d) Br

46. Reducing sugar = ?
a) Glucose b) Sucrose c) Starch d) Cellulose

47. Paramagnetic species = ?
a) O₂ b) N₂ c) CO₂ d) H₂

48. 0.1 M NaOH solution contains:
a) 0.1 M OH⁻ b) 0.2 M OH⁻ c) 0.05 M OH⁻ d) 0.01 M OH⁻

49. Compound showing cis-trans isomerism = ?
a) C₂HCl₂ b) C₂H₄Cl₂ c) CH₄ d) C₂H₆

50. Molar mass of CO₂ = ?
a) 44 g b) 28 g c) 32 g d) 12 g

51. Nonpolar molecule = ?
a) CO₂ b) H₂O c) NH₃ d) HCl

52. Oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄ = ?
a) +7 b) +2 c) +4 d) +6

53. Standard electrode potential of Cu²⁺/Cu = ?
a) +0.34 V b) +0.44 V c) +0.54 V d) +0.24 V

54. Compound showing resonance = ?
a) Benzene b) Methane c) Ethane d) Propane

55. Gas released when HCl reacts with Na₂CO₃ = ?
a) CO₂ b) O₂ c) H₂ d) N₂

56. Lewis base = ?
a) NH₃ b) HCl c) BF₃ d) AlCl₃

57. Boiling point increases on addition of:
a) NaCl b) Ethanol c) Methanol d) Benzene

58. Tertiary alcohol = ?
a) (CH₃)₃COH b) CH₃CH₂OH c) CH₃CH(OH)CH₃ d) CH₃OH

59. Compound showing tautomerism = ?
a) Acetone b) Methane c) Ethane d) Ethylene

60. Predominantly ionic compound = ?
a) NaCl b) CO₂ c) H₂O d) HCl

61. Strong oxidizing agent = ?
a) KMnO₄ b) H₂ c) CO d) C

62. Aromatic compound = ?
a) Benzene b) Cyclohexane c) Propane d) Butane

63. Polymerization reaction = ?
a) Ethylene → Polyethylene b) Esterification c) Oxidation d) Neutralization

64. Most metallic element = ?
a) Sodium b) Magnesium c) Aluminium d) Phosphorus

65. Buffer solution = ?
a) CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa b) HCl c) NaOH d) H₂SO₄

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Section 3 – Biology (Questions 66–100)

66. Which phase of mitosis is characterized by alignment of chromosomes at the equatorial plate?
a) Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase

67. The enzyme responsible for converting fibrinogen into fibrin is:
a) Thrombin b) Heparin c) Plasmin d) Prothrombin

68. In humans, the normal tidal volume is approximately:
a) 500 mL b) 1500 mL c) 250 mL d) 1000 mL

69. Which hormone increases blood glucose levels by promoting glycogen breakdown?
a) Glucagon b) Insulin c) Oxytocin d) Prolactin

70. The functional unit of kidney is:
a) Nephron b) Alveolus c) Neuron d) Osteon

71. Crossing over occurs during which stage of meiosis I?
a) Leptotene b) Zygotene c) Pachytene d) Diplotene

72. Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets?
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B12 c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin K

73. The oxygen dissociation curve of hemoglobin shifts to the right when:
a) pH decreases b) pH increases c) Temperature decreases d) CO₂ decreases

74. Which cell organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes?
a) Lysosome b) Ribosome c) Golgi body d) Centriole

75. The genetic material in prokaryotes is:
a) Circular DNA b) Linear DNA c) RNA only d) Plasmid only

76. Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of:
a) Angiosperms b) Gymnosperms c) Bryophytes d) Pteridophytes

77. Which immunoglobulin is first produced during primary immune response?
a) IgG b) IgA c) IgM d) IgE

78. The pacemaker of the human heart is:
a) AV node b) SA node c) Bundle of His d) Purkinje fibers

79. Photosynthesis occurs in which part of chloroplast?
a) Stroma b) Thylakoid membrane c) Outer membrane d) Matrix

80. Which enzyme initiates DNA replication?
a) DNA polymerase b) RNA primase c) Ligase d) Helicase

81. Incomplete dominance is seen in:
a) Snapdragon b) Pea plant c) Maize d) Wheat

82. The Bohr effect is related to:
a) Hemoglobin affinity for oxygen b) Kidney filtration c) Enzyme inhibition d) Photosynthesis

83. Which structure connects fetus to placenta?
a) Umbilical cord b) Amnion c) Chorion d) Yolk sac

84. Which disease is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
a) Tuberculosis b) Typhoid c) Malaria d) Cholera

85. Which blood group is universal donor?
a) O negative b) AB positive c) A positive d) B negative

86. Genetic code is:
a) Degenerate b) Overlapping c) Ambiguous d) Variable

87. Which process forms ATP during oxidative phosphorylation?
a) Chemiosmosis b) Glycolysis c) Krebs cycle d) Fermentation

88. Hormone secreted by posterior pituitary:
a) Growth hormone b) Oxytocin c) TSH d) ACTH

89. Which type of RNA forms part of ribosome structure?
a) mRNA b) rRNA c) tRNA d) snRNA

90. The main nitrogenous waste in humans is:
a) Urea b) Ammonia c) Uric acid d) Creatinine

91. In Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, allele frequencies remain constant in absence of:
a) Mutation b) Large population c) Random mating d) All of these

92. Which structure is responsible for balance and coordination?
a) Cerebellum b) Cerebrum c) Medulla d) Thalamus

93. C₄ plants initially fix CO₂ into:
a) Oxaloacetic acid b) Pyruvate c) Glucose d) Acetyl-CoA

94. Which blood component is involved in clotting?
a) Platelets b) RBCs c) Plasma d) Lymphocytes

95. Which disease is caused by deficiency of iodine?
a) Goitre b) Scurvy c) Beriberi d) Pellagra

96. The site of protein synthesis in a cell is:
a) Ribosome b) Nucleus c) Golgi body d) Lysosome

97. Which structure regulates transpiration in plants?
a) Stomata b) Xylem c) Phloem d) Cortex

98. The primary source of variation in sexually reproducing organisms is:
a) Recombination b) Mutation only c) Binary fission d) Budding

99. Which hormone regulates menstrual cycle?
a) Estrogen b) Insulin c) Thyroxine d) Adrenaline

100. Energy flow in an ecosystem follows:
a) Unidirectional path b) Cyclic path c) Random path d) Closed loop

Disclaimer:
This mock test is created for practice and educational purposes only. It is not affiliated with any official examination authority, and the actual Delhi Paramedical Entrance Exam pattern may vary.

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Delhi Paramedical Entrance Mock Paper – Full Answer Key (1–100)

Q.No	Ans	Q.No	Ans	Q.No	Ans	Q.No	Ans
1	C	26	A	51	A	76	A
2	B	27	A	52	A	77	C
3	B	28	A	53	A	78	B
4	D	29	A	54	A	79	B
5	A	30	A	55	A	80	D
6	A	31	B	56	A	81	A
7	A	32	A	57	A	82	A
8	A	33	A	58	A	83	A
9	A	34	A	59	A	84	A
10	A	35	A	60	A	85	A
11	A	36	A	61	A	86	A
12	A	37	A	62	A	87	A
13	A	38	A	63	A	88	B
14	A	39	A	64	A	89	B
15	A	40	A	65	A	90	A
16	A	41	A	66	B	91	D
17	A	42	A	67	A	92	A
18	A	43	A	68	A	93	A
19	A	44	A	69	A	94	A
20	A	45	A	70	A	95	A
21	A	46	A	71	C	96	A
22	A	47	A	72	C	97	A
23	A	48	A	73	A	98	A
24	A	49	A	74	A	99	A
25	A	50	A	75	A	100	A