Karnataka Paramedical Entrance Mock Paper
Section 1 – Physics (Questions 1–30)
(High Difficulty – Numerical + Conceptual)
1.
A particle moves with displacement s=2t3−5t2+4t. The acceleration at t = 2 s is:
a) 8 m/s²
b) 14 m/s²
c) 10 m/s²
d) 12 m/s²
2.
Two resistors 12Ω and 18Ω are connected in parallel across a 24 V battery. The total current drawn is:
a) 3 A
b) 4 A
c) 2 A
d) 5 A
3.
A body of mass 2 kg moves in a circle of radius 5 m with speed 10 m/s. Centripetal force is:
a) 20 N
b) 40 N
c) 50 N
d) 100 N
4.
A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm forms a real image at 30 cm. Object distance is:
a) 30 cm
b) 15 cm
c) 45 cm
d) 60 cm
5.
The escape velocity from Earth is approximately:
a) 9 km/s
b) 10 km/s
c) 11.2 km/s
d) 12 km/s
6.
In Young’s double slit experiment, if slit separation is doubled, fringe width becomes:
a) Half
b) Double
c) Same
d) Four times
7.
The work done in compressing a gas from volume V to V/2 at constant temperature is proportional to:
a) ln 2
b) 2
c) 1/2
d) 0
8.
A 10 μF capacitor is charged to 100 V. Energy stored is:
a) 0.05 J
b) 0.5 J
c) 5 J
d) 0.005 J
9.
A transformer has primary turns 1000 and secondary 100. If primary voltage is 220 V, secondary voltage is:
a) 22 V
b) 2.2 V
c) 110 V
d) 44 V
10.
The dimensional formula of angular momentum is:
a) ML²T⁻¹
b) MLT⁻²
c) ML²T⁻²
d) MLT⁻¹
11.
The half-life of a radioactive substance is 4 hours. Fraction remaining after 8 hours is:
a) 1/4
b) 1/2
c) 1/8
d) 3/4
12.
A wave has frequency 500 Hz and velocity 340 m/s. Wavelength is:
a) 0.68 m
b) 0.34 m
c) 1 m
d) 2 m
13.
A body slides down a smooth incline of angle 30°. Acceleration is:
a) g
b) g/2
c) g/√2
d) g/3
14.
A 5 kg object moving at 4 m/s collides elastically with stationary 5 kg mass. Final velocity of first mass:
a) 0
b) 4 m/s
c) –4 m/s
d) 2 m/s
15.
Magnetic force on charge q moving with velocity v perpendicular to B:
a) qvB
b) qB/v
c) v/B
d) q/vB
16.
The pressure at 10 m depth in water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³):
a) 9.8×10⁴ Pa
b) 9.8×10³ Pa
c) 1×10⁵ Pa
d) 5×10⁴ Pa
17.
If amplitude of SHM doubles, energy becomes:
a) 2E
b) 4E
c) E/2
d) E
18.
The SI unit of electric field is:
a) N/C
b) C/N
c) V
d) J
19.
In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends on:
a) Frequency
b) Intensity
c) Work function only
d) Surface area
20.
If resistance of wire is R and length doubled, new resistance:
a) 2R
b) 4R
c) R/2
d) R
21.
Moment of inertia of solid sphere about diameter:
a) 2/5 MR²
b) 2/3 MR²
c) MR²
d) 1/2 MR²
22.
Boyle’s law is valid at:
a) Constant temperature
b) Constant pressure
c) Constant volume
d) Constant entropy
23.
If two capacitors 6 μF and 3 μF are in series, effective capacitance:
a) 2 μF
b) 9 μF
c) 3 μF
d) 1 μF
24.
Power of convex lens of focal length 25 cm:
a) 4 D
b) 2 D
c) 0.25 D
d) 1 D
25.
The SI unit of magnetic flux:
a) Weber
b) Tesla
c) Henry
d) Coulomb
26.
Entropy of an isolated system:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Constant
d) Zero
27.
If force is perpendicular to displacement, work done is:
a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Minimum
d) Infinite
28.
The refractive index is ratio of:
a) Speed in vacuum/speed in medium
b) Speed in medium/speed in vacuum
c) Density ratio
d) Angle ratio
29.
Charge on electron:
a) 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C
b) 1.6×10⁻¹⁸ C
c) 1.6×10⁻²⁰ C
d) 3.2×10⁻¹⁹ C
30.
The first law of thermodynamics is based on conservation of:
a) Energy
b) Momentum
c) Mass
d) Charge
Section 2 – Chemistry (Questions 31–65)
(High Difficulty – Physical, Organic & Inorganic Chemistry)
31.
The hybridization of phosphorus in PCl₅ is:
a) sp³
b) sp³d
c) sp²
d) dsp²
32.
Oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄ is:
a) +5
b) +6
c) +7
d) +4
33.
pH of 0.0001 M HCl solution is:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
34.
Which molecule exhibits hydrogen bonding?
a) CH₄
b) NH₃
c) CO₂
d) CCl₄
35.
The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 0.693 min⁻¹. Half-life is:
a) 1 min
b) 0.5 min
c) 2 min
d) 10 min
36.
For the reaction N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃, the equilibrium constant expression is:
a) [NH₃]² / ([N₂][H₂]³)
b) [N₂][H₂]³ / [NH₃]²
c) [NH₃] / [N₂][H₂]
d) [NH₃]² / [N₂]
37.
The enthalpy change for combustion reactions is generally:
a) Positive
b) Zero
c) Negative
d) Variable
38.
The strongest oxidizing agent among the following is:
a) Cl₂
b) F₂
c) Br₂
d) I₂
39.
Which compound is amphoteric?
a) Na₂O
b) CaO
c) ZnO
d) K₂O
40.
The molarity of solution containing 5 moles of solute in 2 L solution is:
a) 2.5 M
b) 5 M
c) 10 M
d) 0.4 M
41.
The geometry of NH₃ molecule is:
a) Trigonal planar
b) Tetrahedral
c) Trigonal pyramidal
d) Linear
42.
Which has highest ionization energy?
a) Na
b) Mg
c) Al
d) Cl
43.
The number of sigma bonds in ethene (C₂H₄) is:
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
44.
The IUPAC name of CH₃–CH₂–OH is:
a) Methanol
b) Ethanol
c) Propanol
d) Butanol
45.
Which functional group is present in carboxylic acids?
a) –OH
b) –COOH
c) –CHO
d) –NH₂
46.
Which gas is liberated when Na₂CO₃ reacts with HCl?
a) CO
b) CO₂
c) H₂
d) O₂
47.
The Ksp expression of AgCl is:
a) [Ag⁺][Cl⁻]
b) [AgCl]
c) [Ag⁺]²[Cl⁻]
d) 1/[Ag⁺][Cl⁻]
48.
Which of the following is a reducing agent?
a) KMnO₄
b) H₂
c) O₂
d) Cl₂
49.
The molecular mass of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) is:
a) 160 g/mol
b) 180 g/mol
c) 200 g/mol
d) 150 g/mol
50.
Which shows resonance?
a) Benzene
b) Methane
c) Ethane
d) Propane
51.
Which bond is strongest?
a) Single bond
b) Double bond
c) Triple bond
d) Ionic bond
52.
The oxidation state of sulfur in H₂SO₄ is:
a) +4
b) +2
c) +6
d) 0
53.
Which acid is strongest?
a) HCl
b) CH₃COOH
c) H₂CO₃
d) H₂S
54.
Which compound undergoes addition reaction?
a) Ethene
b) Ethane
c) Methane
d) Benzene
55.
Which is a noble gas?
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Neon
d) Chlorine
56.
Avogadro number is:
a) 6.023×10²³
b) 6.022×10²³
c) 6.002×10²³
d) 6.220×10²³
57.
pH of pure water at 25°C is:
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 5
58.
Which is an example of ester?
a) CH₃COOCH₃
b) CH₃COOH
c) CH₃OH
d) CH₃CHO
59.
Which element has highest electronegativity?
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Fluorine
d) Chlorine
60.
Which process is exothermic?
a) Photosynthesis
b) Respiration
c) Sublimation
d) Melting
61.
The coordination number of central atom in [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ is:
a) 4
b) 2
c) 6
d) 8
62.
Which is a strong base?
a) NH₄OH
b) NaOH
c) H₂O
d) NH₃
63.
The empirical formula of glucose is:
a) CH₂O
b) C₆H₁₂O₆
c) C₂H₄O₂
d) CHO
64.
Which element is most metallic?
a) Na
b) Mg
c) Al
d) Si
65.
Which solution acts as a buffer?
a) HCl
b) NaOH
c) CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa
d) H₂SO₄
Section 3 – Biology (Questions 66–100)
(High Difficulty – Human Physiology, Genetics, Botany, Biotechnology, Ecology)
66.
During meiosis, crossing over occurs in which stage?
a) Leptotene
b) Zygotene
c) Pachytene
d) Diplotene
67.
The functional unit of kidney is:
a) Neuron
b) Nephron
c) Alveolus
d) Osteon
68.
The universal donor blood group is:
a) O⁻
b) AB⁺
c) A⁺
d) B⁻
69.
The oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right when:
a) pH increases
b) CO₂ decreases
c) Temperature increases
d) Oxygen concentration increases
70.
Which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments during DNA replication?
a) DNA polymerase
b) Helicase
c) DNA ligase
d) Primase
71.
C₄ plants initially fix CO₂ into:
a) Pyruvate
b) Oxaloacetic acid
c) Glucose
d) Malate only
72.
Which vitamin deficiency causes pernicious anemia?
a) Vitamin B₁
b) Vitamin B₁₂
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
73.
The pacemaker of human heart is:
a) AV node
b) SA node
c) Bundle of His
d) Purkinje fibers
74.
The site of photosynthesis in chloroplast is:
a) Matrix
b) Stroma
c) Ribosome
d) Nucleus
75.
Which hormone regulates blood glucose by promoting glycogenesis?
a) Glucagon
b) Insulin
c) Adrenaline
d) Cortisol
76.
Which immunoglobulin is produced first during primary immune response?
a) IgA
b) IgM
c) IgG
d) IgE
77.
Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium assumes absence of:
a) Mutation
b) Natural selection
c) Gene flow
d) All of these
78.
Which structure controls voluntary actions?
a) Cerebellum
b) Cerebrum
c) Medulla
d) Hypothalamus
79.
The primary nitrogenous waste in humans is:
a) Ammonia
b) Urea
c) Uric acid
d) Creatinine
80.
Which part of nephron is responsible for selective reabsorption?
a) Bowman’s capsule
b) Loop of Henle
c) Proximal convoluted tubule
d) Glomerulus
81.
In incomplete dominance, the F₂ phenotypic ratio is:
a) 3:1
b) 1:2:1
c) 9:3:3:1
d) 2:1
82.
Which plant hormone promotes cell elongation?
a) Auxin
b) Ethylene
c) Cytokinin
d) Abscisic acid
83.
The genetic material of retrovirus is:
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Both DNA and RNA
d) Protein
84.
Which organelle is known as the “powerhouse” of the cell?
a) Nucleus
b) Ribosome
c) Mitochondria
d) Golgi apparatus
85.
Which disease is caused by Plasmodium?
a) Dengue
b) Tuberculosis
c) Malaria
d) Cholera
86.
The Bohr effect relates to:
a) Oxygen transport by hemoglobin
b) Kidney filtration
c) Enzyme inhibition
d) Hormonal regulation
87.
Which process produces ATP in mitochondria?
a) Glycolysis
b) Krebs cycle
c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) Fermentation
88.
Which structure connects fetus to placenta?
a) Chorion
b) Amnion
c) Umbilical cord
d) Yolk sac
89.
Double fertilization is characteristic of:
a) Gymnosperms
b) Bryophytes
c) Angiosperms
d) Pteridophytes
90.
Which blood component is responsible for clotting?
a) RBC
b) WBC
c) Platelets
d) Plasma
91.
Which type of RNA carries amino acids to ribosome?
a) mRNA
b) rRNA
c) tRNA
d) snRNA
92.
Which structure regulates balance and coordination?
a) Cerebellum
b) Cerebrum
c) Medulla
d) Pons
93.
The enzyme RuBisCO is involved in:
a) Glycolysis
b) Krebs cycle
c) Calvin cycle
d) Electron transport chain
94.
Which disorder is due to iodine deficiency?
a) Goitre
b) Rickets
c) Scurvy
d) Beriberi
95.
Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart?
a) Pulmonary artery
b) Aorta
c) Pulmonary vein
d) Vena cava
96.
Which phase of mitosis shows chromosome alignment at equator?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase
97.
The main function of xylem is:
a) Food transport
b) Water transport
c) Photosynthesis
d) Storage
98.
Variation in sexually reproducing organisms mainly arises due to:
a) Binary fission
b) Mutation only
c) Recombination
d) Budding
99.
Which endocrine gland is called master gland?
a) Thyroid
b) Adrenal
c) Pituitary
d) Pancreas
100.
Energy flow in ecosystem is:
a) Cyclic
b) Bidirectional
c) Unidirectional
d) Random
Disclaimer:
This mock test is created for practice and educational purposes only. It is not affiliated with any official examination authority, and the actual Karnataka Paramedical Entrance Exam pattern may vary.
Karnataka Paramedical Entrance – Full Answer Key (1–100)
| Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | 26 | A | 51 | C | 76 | B |
| 2 | A | 27 | B | 52 | C | 77 | D |
| 3 | B | 28 | A | 53 | A | 78 | B |
| 4 | A | 29 | A | 54 | A | 79 | B |
| 5 | C | 30 | A | 55 | C | 80 | C |
| 6 | A | 31 | B | 56 | B | 81 | B |
| 7 | A | 32 | C | 57 | B | 82 | A |
| 8 | A | 33 | C | 58 | A | 83 | B |
| 9 | A | 34 | B | 59 | C | 84 | C |
| 10 | A | 35 | A | 60 | B | 85 | C |
| 11 | A | 36 | A | 61 | C | 86 | A |
| 12 | A | 37 | C | 62 | B | 87 | C |
| 13 | B | 38 | B | 63 | A | 88 | C |
| 14 | A | 39 | C | 64 | A | 89 | C |
| 15 | A | 40 | A | 65 | C | 90 | C |
| 16 | A | 41 | C | 66 | C | 91 | C |
| 17 | B | 42 | D | 67 | B | 92 | A |
| 18 | A | 43 | B | 68 | A | 93 | C |
| 19 | A | 44 | B | 69 | C | 94 | A |
| 20 | A | 45 | B | 70 | C | 95 | C |
| 21 | A | 46 | B | 71 | B | 96 | B |
| 22 | A | 47 | A | 72 | B | 97 | B |
| 23 | A | 48 | B | 73 | B | 98 | C |
| 24 | A | 49 | B | 74 | B | 99 | C |
| 25 | A | 50 | A | 75 | B | 100 | C |