Total Questions: 100
Total Marks: 100
Duration: 90 Minutes
(All questions carry 1 mark)
SECTION A: PROFESSIONAL ABILITY (Q1–70)
MEDICAL–SURGICAL NURSING (Q1–20)
Q1.
A 58-year-old COPD patient on oxygen therapy becomes drowsy with RR 8/min and PaCO₂ 68 mmHg. What is the priority action?
a) Increase oxygen flow
b) Stop oxygen immediately
c) Lower oxygen and inform physician
d) Encourage deep breathing
Q2.
Unequal pupils, bradycardia, and irregular respirations indicate:
a) Neurogenic shock
b) Cushing’s triad
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Spinal shock
Q3.
Continuous NG suction may cause:
a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Metabolic alkalosis
c) Hyperkalemia
d) Respiratory acidosis
Q4.
Tingling and carpopedal spasm after thyroidectomy indicate:
a) Thyroid storm
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hyperkalemia
d) Laryngeal edema
Q5.
During blood transfusion patient develops chills, hypotension, flank pain. First action?
a) Slow transfusion
b) Stop transfusion
c) Give antihistamine
d) Check BP
Q6.
ABG: pH 7.25, PaCO₂ 60, HCO₃ 24 indicates:
a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Respiratory acidosis
c) Respiratory alkalosis
d) Compensated acidosis
Q7.
Most reliable indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation in burns:
a) BP
b) CVP
c) Urine output
d) Pulse rate
Q8.
Earliest ECG sign of hyperkalemia:
a) U wave
b) Tall T waves
c) ST elevation
d) Prolonged PR
Q9.
Sudden dyspnea in DVT patient suggests:
a) MI
b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Pneumothorax
d) Asthma
Q10.
Pruritus in CRF occurs due to:
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Uremia
c) Hypokalemia
d) Dehydration
Q11.
Drug of choice in status epilepticus:
a) Phenytoin
b) Diazepam IV
c) Carbamazepine
d) Lithium
Q12.
NPO in pancreatitis helps to:
a) Prevent vomiting
b) Reduce enzyme secretion
c) Prevent dehydration
d) Maintain glucose
Q13.
Most common symptom of left heart failure:
a) Ascites
b) Pulmonary edema
c) Pedal edema
d) Hepatomegaly
Q14.
Early sign of shock:
a) Hypotension
b) Tachycardia
c) Cyanosis
d) Anuria
Q15.
Heparin therapy monitored by:
a) PT
b) INR
c) aPTT
d) Bleeding time
Q16.
Isolation for pulmonary TB:
a) Droplet
b) Contact
c) Airborne
d) Protective
Q17.
Chest tube insertion site in pneumothorax:
a) 2nd ICS MCL
b) 5th ICS MAL
c) 8th ICS posterior
d) 1st ICS
Q18.
Fruity breath, glucose 450 mg/dl indicates:
a) Hypoglycemia
b) DKA
c) HHS
d) Lactic acidosis
Q19.
Effective CPR sign:
a) Cyanosis
b) Pulse during compression
c) No recoil
d) Dilated pupil
Q20.
Confusion + asterixis in cirrhosis:
a) Portal HTN
b) Hepatic encephalopathy
c) Ascites
d) Hepatorenal syndrome
OBSTETRICS & GYNECOLOGY (Q21–35)
Q21.
Most common cause of PPH:
a) Trauma
b) Atony
c) Retained placenta
d) Coagulopathy
Q22.
Drug of choice in eclampsia:
a) Diazepam
b) Magnesium sulfate
c) Phenytoin
d) Labetalol
Q23.
Placenta previa presents with:
a) Painful bleeding
b) Painless bleeding
c) Rigid abdomen
d) Shock first
Q24.
Bishop score assesses:
a) Fetal wellbeing
b) Cervical readiness
c) Pelvic adequacy
d) Uterine tone
Q25.
Normal FHR:
a) 100–120
b) 110–160
c) 120–180
d) 90–140
Q26.
Primary sign of pregnancy:
a) Amenorrhea
b) Quickening
c) Hegar’s sign
d) Positive hCG
Q27.
Rh incompatibility prevented by:
a) Oxytocin
b) Anti-D
c) TT
d) Vitamin K
Q28.
Partograph alert line indicates:
a) Normal progress
b) Slow labor
c) Fetal distress
d) Obstructed labor
Q29.
Apgar score assesses all EXCEPT:
a) Heart rate
b) Respiration
c) Weight
d) Muscle tone
Q30.
Fundal height at 20 weeks:
a) Below umbilicus
b) At umbilicus
c) Above umbilicus
d) Xiphisternum
Q31.
Sign of abruptio placenta:
a) Painless bleeding
b) Concealed bleeding
c) Soft uterus
d) No pain
Q32.
Most common cause of infertility:
a) Fibroid
b) Anovulation
c) PID
d) Cervical stenosis
Q33.
LOA position means:
a) Left occiput anterior
b) Left occiput posterior
c) Right occiput anterior
d) Left sacrum anterior
Q34.
Drug for prevention of PPH:
a) Misoprostol
b) Ergometrine
c) Oxytocin
d) All
Q35.
Minimum ANC visits recommended (WHO updated):
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
CHILD HEALTH NURSING (Q36–50)
Q36.
IMNCI severe dehydration sign:
a) Thirsty
b) Sunken eyes
c) Lethargy
d) Irritable
Q37.
Birth vaccine includes:
a) BCG
b) OPV-0
c) Hep B
d) All
Q38.
Most common CHD:
a) TOF
b) ASD
c) VSD
d) PDA
Q39.
Weight of 1-year-old child:
a) Birth weight
b) Double
c) Triple
d) Quadruple
Q40.
Vitamin A dose at 9 months:
a) 1 lakh IU
b) 2 lakh IU
c) 5 lakh IU
d) 10 lakh IU
Q41.
Phototherapy works by:
a) Oxidation
b) Conjugation
c) Photoisomerization
d) Hydrolysis
Q42.
Kwashiorkor sign:
a) Severe wasting
b) Edema
c) No appetite
d) Muscle hypertrophy
Q43.
Kernig’s sign seen in:
a) Meningitis
b) Pneumonia
c) Asthma
d) Sepsis
Q44.
Cyanotic spell in TOF relieved by:
a) Supine
b) Knee chest
c) Prone
d) Trendelenburg
Q45.
Contraindication to DPT:
a) Fever
b) Seizure history
c) Mild cold
d) Low birth weight
Q46.
Best site for IM injection in infant:
a) Deltoid
b) Gluteal
c) Vastus lateralis
d) Forearm
Q47.
Most common cause of neonatal death:
a) Sepsis
b) Asphyxia
c) Prematurity
d) Tetanus
Q48.
ORS works by:
a) Osmosis
b) Sodium-glucose co-transport
c) Diffusion
d) Active potassium pump
Q49.
Normal RR in newborn:
a) 10–20
b) 20–30
c) 30–60
d) 60–80
Q50.
Rickets due to deficiency of:
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin K
MENTAL HEALTH + COMMUNITY + RESEARCH + PHARMA (Q51–70)
Q51.
First-rank symptom described by:
a) Freud
b) Schneider
c) Pavlov
d) Skinner
Q52.
Lithium toxicity level:
a) 0.5
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 3.5
Q53.
Defense mechanism in OCD:
a) Projection
b) Rationalization
c) Undoing
d) Denial
Q54.
Best therapy for phobia:
a) Psychoanalysis
b) Systematic desensitization
c) ECT
d) Hypnosis
Q55.
Flumazenil used for:
a) Opioid overdose
b) Benzodiazepine overdose
c) Alcohol poisoning
d) Lithium toxicity
Q56.
Cold chain temp:
a) 0–10°C
b) 2–8°C
c) -2–2°C
d) 8–15°C
Q57.
DOTS stands for:
a) Directly Observed Treatment Shortcourse
b) Drug Oriented TB Strategy
c) Direct Oral Therapy
d) Disease Oriented TB Service
Q58.
Eligible couple age group:
a) 15–49
b) 18–45
c) 21–50
d) 20–40
Q59.
Null hypothesis means:
a) Relationship exists
b) No relationship
c) Strong relationship
d) Weak relationship
Q60.
Chi-square test used for:
a) Mean comparison
b) Proportion
c) Variance
d) SD
Q61.
Therapeutic index means:
a) Toxic dose/Effective dose
b) ED/LD
c) Safe margin
d) a & c
Q62.
Heparin antidote:
a) Vitamin K
b) Protamine sulfate
c) Atropine
d) Naloxone
Q63.
Autoclave temp:
a) 100°C
b) 110°C
c) 121°C
d) 150°C
Q64.
Nosocomial infection means:
a) Community acquired
b) Hospital acquired
c) Viral infection
d) Chronic infection
Q65.
Universal precautions apply to:
a) HIV patients only
b) All patients
c) Hepatitis patients
d) ICU only
Q66.
Normal adult pulse:
a) 50–60
b) 60–100
c) 100–120
d) 40–80
Q67.
Most common IM site adult:
a) Deltoid
b) Dorsogluteal
c) Ventrogluteal
d) Rectus femoris
Q68.
Independent variable is:
a) Outcome
b) Measured variable
c) Manipulated variable
d) Error
Q69.
Likert scale measures:
a) Knowledge
b) Skill
c) Attitude
d) IQ
Q70.
Pilot study purpose:
a) Publish
b) Test feasibility
c) Data analysis
d) Final conclusion
SECTION B: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q71–80)
Q71.
The headquarters of the World Health Organization (WHO) is located in which of the following cities?
a) New York, USA
b) Geneva, Switzerland
c) Paris, France
d) London, UK
Q72.
Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees the Right to Equality before law and equal protection of laws?
a) Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 32
Q73.
The Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban and Rural) was officially launched by the Government of India in which year?
a) 2012
b) 2013
c) 2014
d) 2016
Q74.
Which is the largest gland in the human body and performs functions such as detoxification and bile production?
a) Pancreas
b) Thyroid
c) Liver
d) Pituitary
Q75.
Which vitamin is synthesized in the human body when the skin is exposed to sunlight?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
Q76.
The abbreviation ICU in hospital settings stands for:
a) Intensive Care Unit
b) International Care Unit
c) Integrated Clinical Unit
d) Internal Care Utility
Q77.
What is the capital city of Arunachal Pradesh?
a) Dispur
b) Itanagar
c) Kohima
d) Aizawl
Q78.
AIIMS stands for:
a) All India Institute of Medical Studies
b) All India Institute of Medical Sciences
c) Advanced Institute of Medical Sciences
d) All India International Medical Services
Q79.
Which of the following blood groups is known as the universal donor for red blood cell transfusion?
a) AB positive
b) O positive
c) O negative
d) AB negative
Q80.
The SI unit of force is:
a) Joule
b) Newton
c) Pascal
d) Watt
SECTION C: GENERAL ARITHMETIC & REASONING (Q81–90)
Q81.
Find 15% of 480.
a) 60
b) 72
c) 84
d) 90
Q82.
The ratio of two numbers is 4:5 and their sum is 180. What is the larger number?
a) 80
b) 90
c) 100
d) 120
Q83.
Simplify:
2³ × 2⁴ = ?
a) 64
b) 128
c) 32
d) 16
Q84.
Pointing to a man, a woman says, “He is the son of my mother’s only son.” How is the man related to the woman?
a) Brother
b) Son
c) Father
d) Uncle
Q85.
Find the next number in the series:
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
a) 36
b) 40
c) 42
d) 44
Q86.
In a certain code language, TRAIN is written as USBJO. How will NURSE be written in that code?
a) OVSTF
b) OVSTG
c) OVSRE
d) MTRRD
Q87.
What is the probability of getting a head when a fair coin is tossed once?
a) 1
b) 1/2
c) 1/3
d) 1/4
Q88.
Find the LCM of 12 and 18.
a) 24
b) 36
c) 48
d) 72
Q89.
If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West, and so on (cyclically), what will West become?
a) South
b) East
c) North-East
d) South-West
Q90.
Choose the odd one out:
a) Insulin
b) Thyroxine
c) Adrenaline
d) Hemoglobin
SECTION D: GENERAL SCIENCE (Q91–100)
Q91.
What is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtration of blood and formation of urine?
a) Alveolus
b) Neuron
c) Nephron
d) Glomerulus
Q92.
The normal pH of human arterial blood is approximately:
a) 6.8–7.0
b) 7.0–7.2
c) 7.35–7.45
d) 7.8–8.0
Q93.
Which is the largest and strongest bone in the human body?
a) Tibia
b) Humerus
c) Femur
d) Pelvis
Q94.
Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin K
Q95.
Malaria is caused by which of the following organisms?
a) Virus
b) Bacteria
c) Protozoa
d) Fungi
Q96.
The normal hemoglobin level in an adult female is approximately:
a) 8–10 g/dL
b) 10–12 g/dL
c) 12–16 g/dL
d) 16–20 g/dL
Q97.
Which hormone is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas?
a) Glucagon
b) Insulin
c) Somatostatin
d) Thyroxine
Q98.
Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure?
a) Stethoscope
b) Sphygmomanometer
c) Spirometer
d) Thermometer
Q99.
The normal platelet count in a healthy adult ranges between:
a) 50,000–1,00,000 /mm³
b) 1,00,000–1,50,000 /mm³
c) 1,50,000–4,00,000 /mm³
d) 4,00,000–6,00,000 /mm³
Q100.
How many pairs of cranial nerves are present in the human body?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16
| Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | c | 26 | d | 51 | b | 76 | a |
| 2 | b | 27 | b | 52 | c | 77 | b |
| 3 | b | 28 | b | 53 | c | 78 | b |
| 4 | b | 29 | c | 54 | b | 79 | c |
| 5 | b | 30 | b | 55 | b | 80 | b |
| 6 | b | 31 | b | 56 | b | 81 | b |
| 7 | c | 32 | b | 57 | a | 82 | c |
| 8 | b | 33 | a | 58 | a | 83 | b |
| 9 | b | 34 | d | 59 | b | 84 | b |
| 10 | b | 35 | c | 60 | b | 85 | c |
| 11 | b | 36 | c | 61 | d | 86 | a |
| 12 | b | 37 | d | 62 | b | 87 | b |
| 13 | b | 38 | c | 63 | c | 88 | b |
| 14 | b | 39 | c | 64 | b | 89 | a |
| 15 | c | 40 | a | 65 | b | 90 | d |
| 16 | c | 41 | c | 66 | b | 91 | c |
| 17 | a | 42 | b | 67 | c | 92 | c |
| 18 | b | 43 | a | 68 | c | 93 | c |
| 19 | b | 44 | b | 69 | c | 94 | d |
| 20 | b | 45 | b | 70 | b | 95 | c |
| 21 | b | 46 | c | 71 | b | 96 | c |
| 22 | b | 47 | c | 72 | a | 97 | b |
| 23 | b | 48 | b | 73 | c | 98 | b |
| 24 | b | 49 | c | 74 | c | 99 | c |
| 25 | b | 50 | c | 75 | d | 100 | b |
Disclaimer:
This mock test is created for practice and educational purposes only. It is not officially affiliated with or endorsed by the Railway Recruitment Board (RRB). For official notifications and updates, please visit the official RRB website.