| Section | No. of Questions | Marks | Time (minutes) | Difficulty | Negative Marking |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Professional Ability | 70 | 70 | 60 | Moderate → High (based on PYQs) | 1/3 per wrong answer |
| General Awareness | 10 | 10 | 10 | Moderate (RRB + Health + Railways) | 1/3 per wrong answer |
| General Arithmetic & Reasoning | 20 | 20 | 20 | Moderate → High | 1/3 per wrong answer |
Part 1 (Questions 1–35)
Section A – Professional Ability (High Difficulty | PYQ Pattern Based)
Total Questions in this Part: 35
1.
A 65-year-old patient with anterior wall MI develops hypotension, distended neck veins, and clear lung fields. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Left ventricular failure
B. Right ventricular infarction
C. Cardiogenic shock due to LV rupture
D. Pulmonary embolism
2.
A patient’s ABG shows:
pH = 7.48
PaCO₂ = 30 mmHg
HCO₃⁻ = 22 mEq/L
Interpretation:
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis (partially compensated)
C. Respiratory alkalosis (uncompensated)
D. Mixed alkalosis
3.
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which lab finding is expected?
A. Decreased PT
B. Decreased D-dimer
C. Thrombocytosis
D. Prolonged aPTT
4.
A burn patient (60 kg) has 50% TBSA burns. Calculate fluid requirement for first 8 hours (Parkland formula).
A. 6000 ml
B. 3000 ml
C. 12,000 ml
D. 24,000 ml
5.
Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in angle-closure glaucoma?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Timolol
C. Atropine
D. Acetazolamide
6.
The most sensitive early indicator of hypovolemic shock is:
A. Hypotension
B. Decreased urine output
C. Tachycardia
D. Altered mental status
7.
A patient with chronic kidney disease develops hyperkalemia (K⁺ 6.8 mEq/L) with ECG changes. The immediate drug of choice is:
A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B. IV Calcium gluconate
C. Furosemide
D. Insulin alone
8.
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
9.
In a ventilated patient, high peak inspiratory pressure with normal plateau pressure suggests:
A. Decreased lung compliance
B. Bronchospasm
C. Pneumothorax
D. ARDS
10.
Which cranial nerve is affected in Bell’s palsy?
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN IX
D. CN X
11.
A child with nephrotic syndrome presents with edema and heavy proteinuria. The most common type in children is:
A. Membranous nephropathy
B. FSGS
C. Minimal change disease
D. IgA nephropathy
12.
Which electrolyte imbalance causes prolonged QT interval?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypernatremia
13.
A postpartum woman develops sudden breathlessness and hypotension after delivery. The likely cause is:
A. Amniotic fluid embolism
B. Uterine rupture
C. Eclampsia
D. Retained placenta
14.
The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is:
A. Dopamine
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Adrenaline IM
D. Antihistamine IV
15.
A patient receiving long-term corticosteroids should be monitored for:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Osteoporosis
D. Bradycardia
16.
Which hepatitis virus has highest risk of chronicity?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HEV
17.
In iron deficiency anemia, which lab value is typically elevated?
A. Ferritin
B. Transferrin
C. MCV
D. Serum iron
18.
The earliest sign of raised intracranial pressure is:
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Change in level of consciousness
D. Fixed dilated pupils
19.
Which antibiotic is associated with “Red man syndrome”?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Vancomycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Ciprofloxacin
20.
A patient on warfarin therapy has INR of 6 without bleeding. The next step is:
A. Continue same dose
B. Stop warfarin temporarily
C. Give IV Heparin
D. Immediate surgery
21.
Which part of nephron is impermeable to water?
A. Proximal tubule
B. Descending loop
C. Ascending loop
D. Collecting duct
22.
In ARDS, the characteristic finding is:
A. Decreased alveolar-capillary permeability
B. Increased surfactant production
C. Bilateral infiltrates on X-ray
D. Normal oxygenation
23.
Which vaccine is given intradermally?
A. DPT
B. BCG
C. OPV
D. Measles
24.
A diabetic patient has fruity breath and Kussmaul respiration. The condition is:
A. HHS
B. DKA
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Lactic acidosis
25.
Which heart valve is most commonly affected in rheumatic heart disease?
A. Aortic
B. Mitral
C. Pulmonary
D. Tricuspid
26.
Which nerve injury causes foot drop?
A. Tibial nerve
B. Femoral nerve
C. Common peroneal nerve
D. Obturator nerve
27.
A patient develops transfusion reaction with fever and chills. The most common cause is:
A. Hemolytic reaction
B. Allergic reaction
C. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
D. Anaphylaxis
28.
In SIADH, serum sodium is:
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Normal
D. Variable
29.
The most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycoplasma
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Influenza virus
30.
Which artery is palpated during measurement of blood pressure?
A. Radial
B. Brachial
C. Femoral
D. Ulnar
31.
In ECG, ST elevation indicates:
A. Ischemia
B. Infarction
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
32.
The main reservoir of rabies virus in India is:
A. Bats
B. Monkeys
C. Dogs
D. Rats
33.
Which condition causes metabolic alkalosis?
A. Diarrhea
B. Renal failure
C. Vomiting
D. DKA
34.
A patient on mechanical ventilation suddenly deteriorates with absent breath sounds on one side and hypotension. Most likely cause:
A. Atelectasis
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Pleural effusion
35.
Which drug is used as first-line treatment in status epilepticus?
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam IV
C. Carbamazepine
D. Valproate
36.
A 58-year-old male with COPD on oxygen therapy becomes drowsy. ABG shows pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 60 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 28 mEq/L. The cause is:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Acute respiratory acidosis
C. Chronic respiratory acidosis with compensation
D. Respiratory alkalosis
37.
Which of the following is a cardinal feature of Cushing’s syndrome?
A. Hyperpigmentation
B. Moon face and truncal obesity
C. Weight loss
D. Hypotension
38.
In hypovolemic shock, which parameter decreases first?
A. Systolic BP
B. Pulse pressure
C. Urine output
D. Central venous pressure
39.
A newborn develops jaundice within 24 hours of birth. The most probable cause is:
A. Physiological jaundice
B. Breast milk jaundice
C. Hemolytic disease of newborn
D. Neonatal hepatitis
40.
The most common complication of long-term heparin therapy is:
A. Thrombocytosis
B. HIT (Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia)
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypertension
41.
Which organism is responsible for gas gangrene?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Pseudomonas
42.
The normal ejection fraction (EF) of left ventricle is:
A. 30–40%
B. 40–50%
C. 55–70%
D. 70–85%
43.
A patient with peptic ulcer develops sudden severe abdominal pain and rigid abdomen. Most likely complication:
A. Obstruction
B. Perforation
C. Hemorrhage
D. Malignancy
44.
Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?
A. Regular insulin
B. NPH
C. Lispro
D. Glargine
45.
In nephritic syndrome, the hallmark feature is:
A. Massive proteinuria
B. Hematuria with RBC casts
C. Severe edema
D. Hyperlipidemia
46.
A patient presents with high fever, severe headache, and neck rigidity. CSF shows high protein, low glucose. Likely diagnosis:
A. Viral meningitis
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. TB meningitis
D. Fungal meningitis
47.
Which electrolyte disturbance is commonly seen in severe burns after 24–48 hours?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperkalemia (initially)
D. Hypercalcemia
48.
The drug of choice in hypertensive emergency during pregnancy is:
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Labetalol
C. Atenolol
D. Enalapril
49.
In ECG, atrial fibrillation is characterized by:
A. Regular rhythm
B. Saw-tooth P waves
C. Absence of P waves
D. Prolonged PR interval
50.
Which condition causes respiratory alkalosis?
A. Diarrhea
B. Panic attack
C. Renal failure
D. COPD exacerbation
51.
A patient with liver cirrhosis develops confusion and flapping tremors. The cause is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hepatic encephalopathy
C. Stroke
D. Sepsis
52.
The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:
A. Ovary
B. Ampulla of fallopian tube
C. Cervix
D. Abdomen
53.
In iron overdose, the specific antidote is:
A. Deferoxamine
B. EDTA
C. Naloxone
D. Atropine
54.
A patient with asthma is prescribed salbutamol. It acts on:
A. Beta-1 receptors
B. Beta-2 receptors
C. Alpha-1 receptors
D. Muscarinic receptors
55.
Which blood component is indicated in thrombocytopenia with active bleeding?
A. Packed RBC
B. FFP
C. Platelet concentrate
D. Cryoprecipitate
56.
The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is:
A. Trauma
B. Alcohol
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Gallstones
57.
Which vitamin deficiency leads to peripheral neuropathy?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
58.
In shock, lactic acidosis occurs due to:
A. Increased oxygen supply
B. Anaerobic metabolism
C. Hyperventilation
D. Renal compensation
59.
Which hormone is elevated in primary hyperthyroidism?
A. TSH
B. T3 and T4
C. ACTH
D. Prolactin
60.
A patient develops stridor after thyroid surgery. Immediate concern is:
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
C. Wound infection
D. Hematoma compressing airway
61.
The most sensitive marker for myocardial injury is:
A. CK-MB
B. LDH
C. Troponin I
D. Myoglobin
62.
Which type of isolation is required for measles?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Standard only
63.
In DKA, potassium levels are usually:
A. Low in serum initially
B. High or normal initially
C. Extremely low always
D. Unchanged
64.
Which artery supplies the lateral aspect of the brain?
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Basilar artery
D. Vertebral artery
65.
The earliest symptom of hypoxia is:
A. Cyanosis
B. Bradycardia
C. Restlessness
D. Hypotension
66.
Which condition leads to increased ICP?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Mannitol
C. Brain tumor
D. Hypothermia
67.
In blood transfusion, universal donor blood group is:
A. AB+
B. O+
C. O-
D. AB-
68.
Which complication is most common in uncontrolled diabetes?
A. Retinopathy
B. Appendicitis
C. Asthma
D. Epistaxis
69.
The drug of choice for tuberculosis under DOTS intensive phase includes:
A. INH, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol
B. INH only
C. Rifampicin only
D. Streptomycin alone
70.
A patient with severe head injury shows decerebrate posturing. This indicates damage to:
A. Cerebral cortex
B. Midbrain/brainstem
C. Cerebellum
D. Frontal lobe
Section B – General Awareness (10 Questions, Q71–80)
71.
The headquarters of Indian Railways is located in:
A. Mumbai
B. Kolkata
C. New Delhi
D. Chennai
72.
The chairman of Railway Board is appointed by:
A. Prime Minister
B. President of India
C. Railway Minister
D. Cabinet Secretary
73.
Which Indian state recently launched the “Meri Didhi, Meri Didi” scheme for healthcare workers?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Gujarat
C. Maharashtra
D. Kerala
74.
National Health Mission (NHM) was launched in which year?
A. 2005
B. 2006
C. 2008
D. 2010
75.
The founder of Red Cross was:
A. Florence Nightingale
B. Henry Dunant
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Robert Koch
76.
The central government’s flagship scheme for free diagnostic services is:
A. Ayushman Bharat
B. National Health Mission
C. Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
D. Free Diagnostic Services Scheme (PMJAY-D)
77.
World Health Day is observed on:
A. April 7
B. March 24
C. May 12
D. June 5
78.
Which organization monitors drug quality and safety in India?
A. ICMR
B. CSIR
C. CDSCO
D. DRDO
79.
The headquarters of WHO is in:
A. New York
B. Geneva
C. London
D. Paris
80.
Which Indian health scheme focuses specifically on prevention of vector-borne diseases like malaria and dengue?
A. NVBDCP
B. NPCDCS
C. RBSK
D. Ayushman Bharat
Section C – General Arithmetic, General Intelligence & Reasoning (20 Questions, Q81–100)
81.
A train travels 360 km in 4 hours. Its speed is:
A. 80 km/h
B. 85 km/h
C. 90 km/h
D. 95 km/h
82.
Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
A. 36
B. 40
C. 42
D. 44
83.
If 5 nurses can attend 40 patients in 8 hours, how many nurses are required for 80 patients in 8 hours?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
84.
Blood : Plasma :: Brain : ?
A. Neuron
B. Cerebrum
C. CSF
D. Skull
85.
Statement: All paramedics are trained professionals.
Conclusions:
I. Some trained professionals are paramedics.
II. All trained professionals are paramedics.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Both follow
D. Neither follows
86.
A shopkeeper sells an item at 15% profit. If the cost price is ₹1200, the selling price is:
A. ₹1380
B. ₹1370
C. ₹1400
D. ₹1420
87.
If 5 pencils cost ₹12, the cost of 8 pencils is:
A. ₹18
B. ₹19.2
C. ₹20
D. ₹21
88.
The simple interest on ₹5000 at 6% per annum for 3 years is:
A. ₹800
B. ₹900
C. ₹850
D. ₹1000
89.
A man walks 6 km north, then 8 km east. The shortest distance from starting point is:
A. 10 km
B. 12 km
C. 14 km
D. 15 km
90.
If the ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their sum is 84, the numbers are:
A. 36, 48
B. 30, 54
C. 42, 42
D. 40, 44
91.
Find the odd one out: 2, 3, 5, 8, 7
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
92.
A series: 5, 10, 20, 40, ?
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 100
93.
If the cost of 3 kg sugar is ₹120, find the cost of 7 kg:
A. ₹240
B. ₹280
C. ₹300
D. ₹320
94.
Which number replaces the question mark? 3, 9, 27, ? , 243
A. 36
B. 54
C. 81
D. 72
95.
A cube has how many edges?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
96.
Statement: All nurses are healthcare workers. Some healthcare workers are female.
Conclusions:
I. Some nurses are female
II. Some female are nurses
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Both follow
D. Neither follows
97.
If A is twice as fast as B, A can complete a work in 10 days. How many days will B take?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
98.
Direction question: A person walks 5 km north, 3 km west, 2 km south. Distance from starting point:
A. 4 km
B. 5 km
C. 6 km
D. 7 km
99.
A train leaves station A at 8:00 am at 60 km/h. Another leaves at 10:00 am at 80 km/h. How far from A will they meet?
A. 120 km
B. 160 km
C. 180 km
D. 200 km
100.
Find the missing number: 7, 14, 28, 56, ?
A. 98
B. 100
C. 112
D. 120
Disclaimer:
This mock test is created for educational and practice purposes only. It is not an official RRB question paper. All questions are based on publicly available previous-year trends and syllabus. Accuracy is intended for study reference; users should verify answers independently before relying on them for exam preparation.
| Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | 26 | C | 51 | B | 76 | D |
| 2 | C | 27 | C | 52 | B | 77 | A |
| 3 | D | 28 | B | 53 | A | 78 | C |
| 4 | A | 29 | C | 54 | B | 79 | B |
| 5 | C | 30 | B | 55 | C | 80 | A |
| 6 | C | 31 | B | 56 | D | 81 | C |
| 7 | B | 32 | C | 57 | A | 82 | C |
| 8 | D | 33 | C | 58 | B | 83 | C |
| 9 | B | 34 | B | 59 | B | 84 | C |
| 10 | B | 35 | B | 60 | D | 85 | A |
| 11 | C | 36 | C | 61 | C | 86 | A |
| 12 | B | 37 | B | 62 | C | 87 | B |
| 13 | A | 38 | D | 63 | B | 88 | B |
| 14 | C | 39 | C | 64 | B | 89 | A |
| 15 | C | 40 | B | 65 | C | 90 | A |
| 16 | C | 41 | B | 66 | C | 91 | D |
| 17 | B | 42 | C | 67 | C | 92 | C |
| 18 | C | 43 | B | 68 | A | 93 | B |
| 19 | B | 44 | C | 69 | A | 94 | C |
| 20 | B | 45 | B | 70 | B | 95 | B |
| 21 | C | 46 | B | 71 | C | 96 | D |
| 22 | C | 47 | C | 72 | B | 97 | C |
| 23 | B | 48 | B | 73 | A | 98 | B |
| 24 | B | 49 | C | 74 | B | 99 | B |
| 25 | B | 50 | B | 75 | B | 100 | C |