Total Questions: 200 | Duration: 3 Hours | No Negative Marking
Section 1 – Physics (Q1–20)
Q1
A particle moves along a straight line with acceleration a=6t m/s². Its velocity after 2 s from rest is:
A. 2 m/s
B. 6 m/s
C. 12 m/s
D. 8 m/s
Q2
Two identical springs of force constant k are connected in series. The effective force constant is:
A. k/2
B. 2k
C. k
D. k/4
Q3
A block slides down a frictionless incline of 30° and length 5 m. Its speed at the bottom is:
A. 5g m/s
B. 10g m/s
C. 5g/2 m/s
D. g/2 m/s
Q4
A 2 kg mass moving at 3 m/s collides elastically with a stationary 1 kg mass. The velocity of the 1 kg mass after collision is:
A. 1 m/s
B. 5 m/s
C. 3 m/s
D. 4 m/s
Q5
The time period of a simple pendulum is independent of:
A. Length
B. Mass
C. Gravity
D. Amplitude (for small angles)
Q6
A concave mirror forms a real image at 20 cm when the object is at 30 cm. The focal length is:
A. 12 cm
B. 60 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 10 cm
Q7
A wire carrying current I lies in a magnetic field B perpendicular to it. The force on the wire is:
A. IB
B. IBL
C. IB/L
D. I/B
Q8
Two capacitors C1=4μF and C2=6μF are connected in parallel. The equivalent capacitance is:
A. 10 μF
B. 2.4 μF
C. 12 μF
D. 1.5 μF
Q9
A projectile is fired at 45° with speed v0. Its maximum height is:
A. v02/2g
B. v02/g
C. v02/4g
D. v02/8g
Q10
A wave has displacement y=0.05sin(20πt−0.1x). Its frequency is:
A. 10 Hz
B. 5 Hz
C. 20 Hz
D. 50 Hz
Q11
In an RC circuit, the time constant τ=RC represents:
A. Time for full charge
B. Time for voltage to rise to 63% of final value
C. Time for voltage to fall to 50% of final value
D. None of the above
Q12
A gas expands isothermally from 2 L to 4 L at 300 K. Work done on the gas is:
A. 0
B. nRTln2
C. nRTln(1/2)
D. 2nRT
Q13
The escape velocity from Earth is independent of:
A. Mass of the object
B. Radius of Earth
C. Mass of Earth
D. Gravitational constant
Q14
A 50 W resistor is connected across 100 V. Current through it is:
A. 0.5 A
B. 2 A
C. 1 A
D. 0.25 A
Q15
Maximum kinetic energy of a mass m in SHM of amplitude A and angular frequency ω is:
A. mω2A2/2
B. 2mω2A2
C. mω2A2
D. 4mω2A2
Q16
The velocity of sound in a gas is given by:
A. P/ρ
B. γP/ρ
C. 2P/ρ
D. P/2ρ
Q17
A force F=10 N acts on a body of mass 2 kg. The acceleration is:
A. 5 m/s²
B. 20 m/s²
C. 10 m/s²
D. 2 m/s²
Q18
The angle between A=2i^+3j^ and B=i^−j^ is:
A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 60°
D. 30°
Q19
Two waves of same frequency are in phase. Superposition leads to:
A. Constructive interference
B. Destructive interference
C. No wave
D. Random interference
Q20
The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends on:
A. Plate area and separation
B. Dielectric constant
C. Both A & B
D. Voltage applied
Section 2 – Chemistry (Q21–40)
Q21
Which has the highest electronegativity?
A. F
B. O
C. N
D. Cl
Q22
Which molecule is planar?
A. CH₄
B. CO₂
C. NH₃
D. H₂O
Q23
Rate law for 2A+B→C is r=k[A][B]2. The order of reaction is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q24
Which has the highest lattice energy?
A. NaCl
B. MgO
C. KBr
D. LiF
Q25
pH of 0.01 M HCl is:
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
Q26
Which is least reactive towards SN2 reaction?
A. CH₃Br
B. C₂H₅Br
C. (CH₃)₃CBr
D. C₆H₅Br
Q27
Which gas is released when NaHCO₃ reacts with HCl?
A. CO
B. CO₂
C. H₂
D. O₂
Q28
Hybridization of S in SF₆ is:
A. sp³
B. sp³d²
C. sp³d
D. sp²
Q29
Which is aromatic?
A. Cyclohexane
B. Benzene
C. Cyclobutadiene
D. Cyclopentene
Q30
Which has the highest boiling point?
A. CH₄
B. H₂O
C. NH₃
D. HF
Q31
Which of the following is paramagnetic?
A. O₂
B. N₂
C. CO₂
D. H₂
Q32
Which is a strong acid?
A. HClO
B. H₂SO₄
C. CH₃COOH
D. HCN
Q33
Number of moles in 22.4 L of ideal gas at STP:
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1.5
Q34
Which is a reducing sugar?
A. Sucrose
B. Glucose
C. Starch
D. Cellulose
Q35
Common oxidizing agent in organic reactions:
A. KMnO₄
B. NaBH₄
C. LiAlH₄
D. Zn/HCl
Q36
The half-life of a first-order reaction is:
A. t1/2=ln2/k
B. t1/2=k/ln2
C. t1/2=1/k
D. t1/2=2/k
Q37
Which is a tertiary alcohol?
A. CH₃CH₂OH
B. (CH₃)₂CHOH
C. (CH₃)₃COH
D. CH₃OH
Q38
Which metal displaces H₂ from water?
A. Na
B. Cu
C. Ag
D. Hg
Q39
Which is the strongest oxidizing agent among halogens?
A. F₂
B. Cl₂
C. Br₂
D. I₂
Q40
Which element forms an acidic oxide?
A. Na
B. Mg
C. P
D. Ca
Section 3 – Mathematics (Q41–120)
Q41
If f(x)=x2−3x+2, the value of f(1)+f(2)+f(3) is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q42
The derivative of sinx2 with respect to x is:
A. 2xcosx2
B. cosx2
C. −2xcosx2
D. sinx2
Q43
The sum of the first n natural numbers is 210. Then n=?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 19
D. 15
Q44
The roots of x2−5x+6=0 are:
A. 2, 3
B. 1, 6
C. -2, -3
D. 3, 4
Q45
If y=e2x, then dxdy=?
A. 2e2x
B. e2x
C. 4e2x
D. ex
Q46
The integral ∫01xdx is:
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. 2
D. 0
Q47
If A=(1324), then detA is:
A. -2
B. 2
C. -1
D. 1
Q48
The sum of first 10 terms of an AP with first term 2 and common difference 3 is:
A. 145
B. 140
C. 150
D. 155
Q49
The probability of getting a sum of 8 when two dice are rolled is:
A. 5/36
B. 7/36
C. 1/6
D. 1/8
Q50
Equation of a line passing through (1,2) with slope 3 is:
A. y=3x+2
B. y=3x−1
C. y=3x−1
D. y=2x+3
Q51
The solution to dxdy=3×2 with y(0)=1 is:
A. y=x3+1
B. y=3×2+1
C. y=x3+3
D. y=x3
Q52
If z=3+4i, ∣z∣ is:
A. 5
B. 7
C. 1
D. 7
Q53
The area under y=x from x=0 to x=2 is:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
Q54
Determinant of (2003) is:
A. 6
B. 5
C. 0
D. 1
Q55
If f(x)=x2−4x+3, maximum or minimum occurs at:
A. x = 1
B. x = 2
C. x = 3
D. x = 4
Q56
The derivative of lnx is:
A. 1/x
B. x
C. ln x
D. x²
Q57
The integral ∫exdx is:
A. ex+C
B. ex
C. xex+C
D. lnx+C
Q58
If sin θ = 3/5, cos θ = ?
A. 4/5
B. 3/5
C. 5/3
D. 1/5
Q59
The sum of interior angles of a pentagon is:
A. 540°
B. 360°
C. 720°
D. 180°
Q60
The quadratic equation with roots 2 and 3 is:
A. x² – 5x + 6 = 0
B. x² + 5x + 6 = 0
C. x² – 6x + 5 = 0
D. x² + 6x + 5 = 0
Section 3 – Mathematics (Q61–120, continued)
Q61
The sum of the first 20 natural numbers divisible by 3 is:
A. 630
B. 640
C. 600
D. 660
Q62
If x2+y2=25 and y=2x+1, find x.
A. 2
B. -2
C. 3
D. 4
Q63
If a1=2 and an+1=2an+1, then a3=?
A. 9
B. 7
C. 5
D. 8
Q64
The derivative of tanx is:
A. sec2x
B. csc2x
C. cotx
D. −csc2x
Q65
The equation of the circle with center (0,0) and radius 5 is:
A. x² + y² = 5
B. x² + y² = 25
C. x² + y² = 10
D. x² + y² = 0
Q66
If a die is rolled twice, probability of getting a sum of 7 is:
A. 1/6
B. 1/8
C. 1/12
D. 1/36
Q67
The matrix (1324) is invertible because:
A. det ≠ 0
B. det = 0
C. trace = 0
D. trace ≠ 0
Q68
If y=x3+2×2−x+1, then dy/dx = ?
A. 3x² + 4x – 1
B. 3x² + 2x – 1
C. x² + 4x -1
D. 3x² -2x + 1
Q69
The solution to ∣x−2∣=5 is:
A. -3, 7
B. 3, -7
C. 1, 5
D. -1, 5
Q70
If f(x)=x2+1, find f(-2).
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Q71
The mean of 5, 10, 15, 20, 25 is:
A. 15
B. 10
C. 20
D. 12
Q72
The roots of x² + x – 6 = 0 are:
A. 2, -3
B. -2, 3
C. 3, -2
D. 1, -6
Q73
If log₂ 8 = x, then x = ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 8
D. 1
Q74
The sum of angles in a hexagon is:
A. 720°
B. 540°
C. 360°
D. 108°
Q75
If sin² θ + cos² θ = 1, then cos² θ = ?
A. 1 – sin² θ
B. sin² θ
C. 1
D. 0
Q76
If x2−5x+6=0, then sum of roots = ?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 1
D. -6
Q77
If two dice are rolled, probability of getting doublet (same number on both) is:
A. 1/6
B. 1/8
C. 1/12
D. 1/36
Q78
If f(x) = x³ – 3x² + 2x, f’(x) = ?
A. 3x² – 6x + 2
B. 3x² – 6x + 1
C. 2x² – 3x + 2
D. 3x² + 6x + 2
Q79
The geometric mean of 4 and 16 is:
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 4
Q80
If the sum of first n odd numbers = 121, n = ?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 10
D. 9
Q81
The slope of line passing through points (2,3) and (4,7) is:
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
Q82
The determinant of (2134) is:
A. 5
B. 8
C. 1
D. -1
Q83
If 2x + 3y = 6, y-intercept = ?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 0
Q84
The derivative of e^(3x) is:
A. 3e^(3x)
B. e^(3x)
C. 6e^(3x)
D. e^x
Q85
The integral ∫2xdx is:
A. x² + C
B. 2x + C
C. x + C
D. 4x + C
Q86
The roots of x² – x – 6 = 0 are:
A. 3, -2
B. -3, 2
C. 2, -3
D. 1, -6
Q87
If probability of event A is 0.4, probability of A’ = ?
A. 0.6
B. 0.4
C. 1
D. 0
Q88
The sum of first 15 multiples of 2 = ?
A. 240
B. 120
C. 150
D. 210
Q89
If x² + 2x – 8 = 0, then x = ?
A. 2, -4
B. -2, 4
C. 4, -2
D. 1, -8
Q90
The roots of 2x² – 5x + 3 = 0 are:
A. 1, 3/2
B. 3, 1/2
C. 1/2, 3
D. 2, 3
Q91
The sum of angles in a triangle = ?
A. 180°
B. 360°
C. 540°
D. 90°
Q92
If sin A = 3/5, cos A = ?
A. 4/5
B. 3/5
C. 1/5
D. √2/2
Q93
The sum of first n terms of AP: a, a+d, …, a+(n-1)d is:
A. n/2[2a + (n-1)d]
B. n[a + (n-1)d]
C. n/2[a + d]
D. n(2a + d)
Q94
If f(x) = x², then f(2) = ?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 1
D. 8
Q95
If x + y = 10 and xy = 21, the quadratic equation with roots x, y is:
A. t² – 10t + 21 = 0
B. t² + 10t + 21 = 0
C. t² – 21t + 10 = 0
D. t² + 21t + 10 = 0
Q96
The distance between points (1,2) and (4,6) is:
A. 5
B. √25
C. √20
D. 10
Q97
The sum of first 50 natural numbers divisible by 5 is:
A. 1275
B. 1250
C. 1300
D. 1200
Q98
If x² + y² = 25, x = 3, then y = ?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 2
D. 3
Q99
If 3x + 2y = 12, x-intercept = ?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 12
D. 2
Q100
The derivative of x³ is:
A. 3x²
B. x²
C. 3x
D. x³
Section 3 – Mathematics (Q101–120, final part)
Q101
If x² – 6x + 8 = 0, the sum of roots = ?
A. 6
B. 8
C. -6
D. 2
Q102
If the mean of 5 numbers is 12 and four numbers are 10, 15, 20, 5, the fifth number is:
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20
Q103
The solution to 2x – 5 = 3 is:
A. 4
B. -4
C. 2
D. -2
Q104
The value of cos² 30° + sin² 60° = ?
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. 0.75
D. 0
Q105
If a line passes through (0,1) and slope = 2, equation of line:
A. y = 2x + 1
B. y = x + 2
C. y = 2x – 1
D. y = x – 1
Q106
The sum of the first 25 even numbers is:
A. 650
B. 625
C. 700
D. 600
Q107
If f(x) = 2x² – 3x + 1, f(3) = ?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 8
D. 15
Q108
The roots of x² + 4x + 4 = 0 are:
A. -2, -2
B. 2, 2
C. -4, 1
D. 1, -4
Q109
The derivative of x⁴ is:
A. 4x³
B. x³
C. 2x³
D. x⁴
Q110
The integral ∫(3×2)dx = ?
A. x³ + C
B. 3x³ + C
C. x² + C
D. 6x² + C
Q111
The median of 5, 10, 15, 20, 25 = ?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 20
D. 12
Q112
If probability of A = 0.7, probability of A’ = ?
A. 0.3
B. 0.7
C. 1
D. 0
Q113
If a₁ = 3, d = 2, n = 10, the 10th term of AP = ?
A. 21
B. 20
C. 19
D. 22
Q114
The roots of x² – x – 12 = 0 are:
A. 4, -3
B. -4, 3
C. 3, -4
D. 1, -12
Q115
The slope of line through (1,3) and (4,9) = ?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
Q116
The sum of interior angles of a nonagon = ?
A. 1260°
B. 1080°
C. 1440°
D. 720°
Q117
The product of roots of x² – 5x + 6 = 0 = ?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 1
D. 2
Q118
If sin² θ = 3/4, then cos² θ = ?
A. 1/4
B. 3/4
C. 1
D. 0
Q119
The derivative of cos x = ?
A. -sin x
B. sin x
C. cos x
D. -cos x
Q120
The integral ∫5dx = ?
A. 5x + C
B. x + C
C. 25x + C
D. 1 + C
Section 4 – Biology (Q121–200)
Q121
Which organelle is called the “powerhouse” of the cell?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Ribosome
D. Golgi apparatus
Q122
DNA replication is:
A. Conservative
B. Semi-conservative
C. Dispersive
D. Random
Q123
Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin C
Q124
The site of photosynthesis in plants is:
A. Mitochondria
B. Chloroplast
C. Nucleus
D. Ribosome
Q125
Which blood cells are responsible for immunity?
A. RBC
B. WBC
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
Q126
Which hormone regulates blood sugar levels?
A. Insulin
B. Adrenaline
C. Thyroxine
D. Cortisol
Q127
Which is a nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A. E. coli
B. Rhizobium
C. Lactobacillus
D. Staphylococcus
Q128
Which enzyme converts starch into maltose?
A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Protease
D. Lactase
Q129
Which is the site of gas exchange in lungs?
A. Bronchi
B. Alveoli
C. Trachea
D. Larynx
Q130
Human chromosome number is:
A. 23
B. 46
C. 44
D. 48
Q131
Which of the following is a monocot?
A. Wheat
B. Pea
C. Mango
D. Sunflower
Q132
Which tissue transports water in plants?
A. Phloem
B. Xylem
C. Parenchyma
D. Collenchyma
Q133
Which is an example of a vestigial organ in humans?
A. Appendix
B. Liver
C. Heart
D. Lungs
Q134
Which macronutrient is the main source of energy?
A. Proteins
B. Carbohydrates
C. Vitamins
D. Minerals
Q135
Which type of immunity is provided by vaccines?
A. Passive immunity
B. Active immunity
C. Innate immunity
D. Humoral immunity
Q136
Which process produces gametes?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Fertilization
D. Budding
Q137
Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K
Q138
The human heart has how many chambers?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q139
Which blood group is universal donor?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
Q140
Which part of the brain controls balance?
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla
D. Hypothalamus
Q141
Which hormone regulates calcium in blood?
A. Insulin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Thyroxine
D. Glucagon
Q142
Which part of nephron reabsorbs most water?
A. Bowman’s capsule
B. Proximal tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Distal tubule
Q143
Which is a desert plant adaptation?
A. Broad leaves
B. Thorns
C. Large flowers
D. Thin cuticle
Q144
Which nitrogenous base is absent in RNA?
A. Adenine
B. Thymine
C. Cytosine
D. Guanine
Q145
Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood to the heart?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Aorta
D. Vena cava
Q146
Which macromolecule stores genetic information?
A. Protein
B. Carbohydrate
C. DNA
D. Lipid
Q147
Which process produces ATP in mitochondria?
A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle + Electron Transport Chain
C. Fermentation
D. Photosynthesis
Q148
Which part of the neuron receives impulses?
A. Axon
B. Dendrite
C. Synapse
D. Myelin sheath
Q149
Which hormone stimulates milk production?
A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Q150
Which part of the plant transports food?
A. Xylem
B. Phloem
C. Cambium
D. Cortex
Q151
Which vitamin is fat-soluble?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin D
(Accept both A and D, commonly A & D)
Q152
Which process splits water molecules in photosynthesis?
A. Calvin cycle
B. Light reaction
C. Glycolysis
D. Krebs cycle
Q153
Which is a biotic component of ecosystem?
A. Sunlight
B. Water
C. Bacteria
D. Soil
Q154
Which type of RNA carries amino acids?
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. snRNA
Q155
Which organ removes nitrogenous waste?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Lung
D. Heart
Q156
Which gas is released in photosynthesis?
A. CO₂
B. O₂
C. N₂
D. H₂
Q157
Which is a non-vascular plant?
A. Fern
B. Moss
C. Bamboo
D. Grass
Q158
Which part of cell is selectively permeable?
A. Nucleus
B. Cell membrane
C. Cytoplasm
D. Ribosome
Q159
Which macronutrient helps in tissue repair?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Vitamins
Q160
Which organism shows alternation of generations?
A. Algae
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Protozoa
Q161
Which hormone regulates sleep-wake cycle?
A. Melatonin
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Adrenaline
Q162
Which is a non-reducing sugar?
A. Glucose
B. Sucrose
C. Maltose
D. Lactose
Q163
Which process produces gametes in animals?
A. Fertilization
B. Meiosis
C. Mitosis
D. Binary fission
Q164
Which enzyme breaks down proteins in stomach?
A. Amylase
B. Pepsin
C. Lipase
D. Maltase
Q165
Which hormone controls fight-or-flight response?
A. Adrenaline
B. Insulin
C. Thyroxine
D. Cortisol
Q166
Which organelle stores water in plant cells?
A. Vacuole
B. Golgi body
C. Mitochondria
D. Nucleus
Q167
Which is a parasitic protozoan?
A. Plasmodium
B. Amoeba
C. Euglena
D. Paramecium
Q168
Which part of neuron transmits impulse away?
A. Dendrite
B. Axon
C. Synapse
D. Soma
Q169
Which hormone stimulates glucose release?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Thyroxine
D. Progesterone
Q170
Which is an example of homoiotherm?
A. Fish
B. Amphibian
C. Human
D. Reptile
Section 4 – Biology (Q171–200, final part)
Q171
Which organelle is involved in protein synthesis?
A. Ribosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosome
D. Golgi apparatus
Q172
Which type of reproduction produces genetically identical offspring?
A. Sexual
B. Asexual
C. Cross-pollination
D. Fertilization
Q173
Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K
Q174
Which enzyme converts pyruvate to ethanol in fermentation?
A. Amylase
B. Pyruvate decarboxylase
C. Lipase
D. Protease
Q175
Which is the functional unit of kidney?
A. Nephron
B. Alveoli
C. Neuron
D. Hepatocyte
Q176
Which blood cells help in clotting?
A. RBC
B. WBC
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
Q177
Which hormone is secreted by adrenal cortex?
A. Cortisol
B. Adrenaline
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine
Q178
Which is an example of gymnosperm?
A. Pine
B. Mango
C. Sunflower
D. Grass
Q179
Which biomolecule forms cell membrane?
A. Protein
B. Carbohydrate
C. Lipid
D. Nucleic acid
Q180
Which organelle is involved in detoxification?
A. Smooth ER
B. Rough ER
C. Mitochondria
D. Lysosome
Q181
Which process produces ATP in cytoplasm?
A. Krebs cycle
B. Glycolysis
C. Electron transport
D. Photosynthesis
Q182
Which hormone regulates water balance in kidney?
A. ADH
B. Insulin
C. Thyroxine
D. Cortisol
Q183
Which bacteria is used in yogurt production?
A. Lactobacillus
B. E. coli
C. Rhizobium
D. Staphylococcus
Q184
Which pigment absorbs light for photosynthesis?
A. Chlorophyll
B. Carotene
C. Xanthophyll
D. Anthocyanin
Q185
Which part of neuron generates action potential?
A. Dendrite
B. Axon hillock
C. Soma
D. Synapse
Q186
Which hormone stimulates ovulation?
A. LH
B. FSH
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Q187
Which part of plant performs transpiration?
A. Root
B. Leaf
C. Stem
D. Flower
Q188
Which vitamin is water-soluble?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
Q189
Which is an example of coenzyme?
A. NAD⁺
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. ATP
Q190
Which organ stores bile?
A. Liver
B. Gall bladder
C. Pancreas
D. Stomach
Q191
Which organism is a producer in ecosystem?
A. Algae
B. Lion
C. Human
D. Snake
Q192
Which blood vessel carries blood from heart to lungs?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Aorta
D. Vena cava
Q193
Which tissue provides mechanical support in plants?
A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Xylem
Q194
Which organism is eukaryotic?
A. Bacteria
B. Amoeba
C. Virus
D. Mycoplasma
Q195
Which gas is released during anaerobic respiration in yeast?
A. CO₂
B. O₂
C. N₂
D. H₂
Q196
Which macronutrient is stored as glycogen in humans?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Lipid
C. Protein
D. Vitamin
Q197
Which hormone regulates metabolic rate?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Glucagon
D. Cortisol
Q198
Which part of plant cell is responsible for rigidity?
A. Cell wall
B. Cell membrane
C. Cytoplasm
D. Nucleus
Q199
Which process converts nitrogen into usable form in plants?
A. Photosynthesis
B. Nitrogen fixation
C. Respiration
D. Transpiration
Q200
Which process produces recombinant DNA?
A. Mitosis
B. Genetic engineering
C. Fertilization
D. Meiosis
| Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | 51 | A | 101 | A | 151 | C |
| 2 | A | 52 | A | 102 | A | 152 | B |
| 3 | A | 53 | B | 103 | A | 153 | C |
| 4 | B | 54 | A | 104 | A | 154 | B |
| 5 | B | 55 | B | 105 | A | 155 | B |
| 6 | A | 56 | A | 106 | A | 156 | B |
| 7 | B | 57 | A | 107 | A | 157 | B |
| 8 | A | 58 | A | 108 | A | 158 | B |
| 9 | C | 59 | A | 109 | A | 159 | B |
| 10 | B | 60 | A | 110 | A | 160 | A |
| 11 | B | 61 | A | 111 | A | 161 | A |
| 12 | B | 62 | B | 112 | A | 162 | B |
| 13 | A | 63 | A | 113 | A | 163 | B |
| 14 | C | 64 | A | 114 | A | 164 | B |
| 15 | A | 65 | B | 115 | A | 165 | A |
| 16 | B | 66 | A | 116 | A | 166 | A |
| 17 | A | 67 | A | 117 | A | 167 | A |
| 18 | A | 68 | A | 118 | A | 168 | B |
| 19 | A | 69 | A | 119 | A | 169 | B |
| 20 | C | 70 | A | 120 | A | 170 | C |
| 21 | A | 71 | A | 121 | B | 171 | A |
| 22 | B | 72 | A | 122 | B | 172 | B |
| 23 | C | 73 | B | 123 | C | 173 | B |
| 24 | B | 74 | A | 124 | B | 174 | B |
| 25 | A | 75 | A | 125 | B | 175 | A |
| 26 | C | 76 | A | 126 | A | 176 | C |
| 27 | B | 77 | A | 127 | B | 177 | A |
| 28 | B | 78 | A | 128 | A | 178 | A |
| 29 | B | 79 | A | 129 | B | 179 | C |
| 30 | B | 80 | A | 130 | B | 180 | A |
| 31 | A | 81 | A | 131 | A | 181 | B |
| 32 | B | 82 | A | 132 | B | 182 | A |
| 33 | B | 83 | B | 133 | A | 183 | A |
| 34 | B | 84 | A | 134 | B | 184 | A |
| 35 | A | 85 | A | 135 | B | 185 | B |
| 36 | A | 86 | A | 136 | B | 186 | A |
| 37 | C | 87 | A | 137 | C | 187 | B |
| 38 | A | 88 | A | 138 | C | 188 | C |
| 39 | A | 89 | A | 139 | D | 189 | A |
| 40 | C | 90 | A | 140 | B | 190 | B |
| 41 | A | 91 | A | 141 | B | 191 | A |
| 42 | A | 92 | A | 142 | B | 192 | A |
| 43 | B | 93 | A | 143 | B | 193 | C |
| 44 | A | 94 | A | 144 | B | 194 | B |
| 45 | A | 95 | A | 145 | B | 195 | A |
| 46 | B | 96 | C | 146 | C | 196 | A |
| 47 | A | 97 | A | 147 | B | 197 | B |
| 48 | A | 98 | A | 148 | B | 198 | A |
| 49 | A | 99 | A | 149 | B | 199 | A |
| 50 | A | 100 | A | 150 | B | 200 | B |
Disclaimer
This mock test is prepared solely for educational purposes. It is inspired by previous years’ MHT-CET question patterns and does not claim affiliation with any official exam authority. Users should verify concepts from standard textbooks.