BITSAT Mock Test

Exam Pattern

  1. Mode of Exam:
    • Computer-Based Test (CBT)
  2. Duration:
    • 3 hours (180 minutes)
  3. Total Questions:
    • 150 questions
  4. Subjects & Number of Questions:
SubjectNumber of Questions
Physics40
Chemistry40
Mathematics/Biology (depending on course)45
English Proficiency & Logical Reasoning25
  1. Marking Scheme:
    • Correct Answer: +3 marks
    • Incorrect Answer: –1 mark
    • Unattempted Question: 0 marks
  2. Extra Questions Option:
    • If a candidate completes all 150 questions before time, they can attempt extra 12 questions (4 from Physics, 4 from Chemistry, 4 from Mathematics/Biology).
    • These are optional and cannot replace previous answers.
  3. Syllabus:
    • Based on NCERT 11th & 12th standard syllabus of Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics/Biology.
    • English Proficiency: grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension.
    • Logical Reasoning: analytical reasoning, puzzles, patterns.
  4. Nature of Questions:
    • Objective Type / Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
    • Each question has 4 options, only one correct.

Physics Questions (Q1–40)

Q1. A particle moves with acceleration a=2ta = 2ta=2t m/s². Its initial velocity is zero. What is the velocity at t = 3 s?

A. 3 m/s
B. 6 m/s
C. 9 m/s
D. 12 m/s

Q2. The unit of magnetic flux is:

A. Tesla
B. Weber
C. Gauss
D. Ampere

Q3. The frequency of a simple pendulum is doubled. Its time period becomes:

A. Half
B. Double
C. Four times
D. One-fourth

Q4. The work done in moving a charge 2 C through a potential difference of 5 V is:

A. 5 J
B. 10 J
C. 7.5 J
D. 2.5 J

Q5. A body of mass 2 kg is moving with velocity 5 m/s. Its kinetic energy is:

A. 10 J
B. 20 J
C. 25 J
D. 50 J

Q6. The angle of deviation of light in a prism is minimum when:

A. Angle of incidence = Angle of emergence
B. Angle of incidence > Angle of emergence
C. Angle of incidence < Angle of emergence
D. Any angle

Q7. The potential energy of a spring is doubled. The amplitude of oscillation:

A. Doubles
B. Halves
C. Increases by √2
D. Decreases by √2

Q8. The SI unit of electric field is:

A. V/m
B. N/C
C. Both A and B
D. Volt

Q9. The angle between velocity and acceleration in uniform circular motion is:

A. 0°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 180°

Q10. Light of wavelength 500 nm passes from air to glass (n = 1.5). Its wavelength in glass is:

A. 333 nm
B. 500 nm
C. 750 nm
D. 1000 nm

Q11. The escape velocity of Earth is approximately:

A. 5 km/s
B. 11 km/s
C. 8 km/s
D. 15 km/s

Q12. In an AC circuit with pure inductance, the current:

A. Leads voltage by 90°
B. Lags voltage by 90°
C. Is in phase with voltage
D. Lags by 45°

Q13. The work function of a metal is 4 eV. The threshold frequency is approximately:

A. 1 × 10¹⁴ Hz
B. 10¹⁵ Hz
C. 2 × 10¹⁴ Hz
D. 5 × 10¹⁴ Hz

Q14. A particle of mass m moves in a circle of radius r with speed v. Its centripetal acceleration is:

A. v² / r
B. v² r
C. vr²
D. r² / v

Q15. The SI unit of capacitance is:

A. Farad
B. Coulomb
C. Henry
D. Ohm

Q16. In Doppler effect, frequency observed increases when source:

A. Moves away from observer
B. Moves towards observer
C. Is stationary
D. Observer moves away

Q17. The angle of refraction is 30° when light enters from air to glass (n = 1.5). The angle of incidence is:

A. 45°
B. 30°
C. 60°
D. 90°

Q18. The magnetic moment of a current loop is:

A. I × A
B. I / A
C. I² × A
D. I × A²

Q19. A man jumps from 5 m height. Time to reach ground:

A. 1 s
B. 1.01 s
C. 1.5 s
D. 2 s

Q20. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s. Its wavelength for 680 Hz sound:

A. 0.5 m
B. 1 m
C. 2 m
D. 4 m

Q21. The SI unit of magnetic flux density:

A. Weber
B. Tesla
C. Gauss
D. Ampere

Q22. The unit of angular momentum is:

A. kg·m²/s²
B. kg·m²/s
C. N·m
D. J·s

Q23. A body slides down a frictionless incline of height h. Its speed at bottom:

A. √(2gh)
B. √(gh)
C. 2gh
D. gh

Q24. In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends on:

A. Frequency of light
B. Intensity of light
C. Both
D. None

Q25. The escape velocity does not depend on:

A. Mass of planet
B. Radius of planet
C. Mass of object
D. G (gravitational constant)

Q26. A concave lens always forms:

A. Real image
B. Virtual image
C. Both
D. Depends on object distance

Q27. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion of amplitude A. Maximum velocity:

A. ωA
B. A²ω
C. ω / A
D. ½ ωA

Q28. The force on a unit charge in an electric field:

A. E × q
B. E / q
C. E
D. None

Q29. The energy of a photon is given by:

A. E = hf
B. E = mc²
C. E = ½ mv²
D. E = h / f

Q30. The work done by centripetal force:

A. Maximum
B. Zero
C. Depends on mass
D. Depends on velocity

Q31. The time period of a spring-mass system:

A. 2π√(m/k)
B. 2π√(k/m)
C. √(m/k)
D. √(k/m)

Q32. The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. Its power:

A. 5 D
B. 10 D
C. 2.5 D
D. 1 D

Q33. The phenomenon of bending of light around edges:

A. Refraction
B. Diffraction
C. Dispersion
D. Reflection

Q34. The maximum height of a projectile:

A. v² sin²θ / 2g
B. v² cos²θ / 2g
C. v² sin2θ / g
D. v² / g

Q35. The electric field inside a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium is:

A. Zero
B. Maximum
C. Depends on shape
D. Constant nonzero

Q36. The SI unit of magnetic flux:

A. Tesla
B. Weber
C. Gauss
D. Ampere

Q37. The time period of a simple pendulum of length L:

A. 2π√(L/g)
B. √(L/g)
C. 2π√(g/L)
D. L/g

Q38. In an AC circuit with pure resistance, the current:

A. Leads voltage
B. Lags voltage
C. In phase
D. Zero

Q39. The de Broglie wavelength λ of a particle:

A. h / p
B. hp
C. h / E
D. √(h / p)

Q40. In resonance of LCR circuit, impedance is:

A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. Zero
D. Infinity


Chemistry Questions (Q1–40)

Q1. Which of the following is a strong acid?

A. HCl
B. CH₃COOH
C. HF
D. H₂CO₃

Q2. The number of moles in 18 g of water (H₂O) is:

A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Q3. The hybridization of carbon in CH₄ is:

A. sp
B. sp²
C. sp³
D. dsp²

Q4. The pH of 0.001 M HCl is approximately:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q5. Which of the following is amphoteric?

A. Al(OH)₃
B. NaOH
C. HCl
D. K₂O

Q6. The gas liberated when Na₂CO₃ reacts with HCl is:

A. O₂
B. CO₂
C. H₂
D. Cl₂

Q7. Which element has the highest electronegativity?

A. F
B. O
C. N
D. Cl

Q8. The oxidation number of S in H₂SO₄ is:

A. +2
B. +4
C. +6
D. +8

Q9. The molecular formula of glucose is:

A. CH₂O
B. C₆H₁₂O₆
C. C₆H₆
D. C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁

Q10. Which of the following is a transition element?

A. Na
B. Fe
C. Mg
D. Ca

Q11. The number of lone pairs on nitrogen in NH₃ is:

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Q12. The reaction Cu + 2AgNO₃ → Cu(NO₃)₂ + 2Ag is:

A. Redox
B. Acid-base
C. Precipitation
D. Decomposition

Q13. The main constituent of natural gas is:

A. Ethane
B. Methane
C. Propane
D. Butane

Q14. The solubility of a gas in liquid increases with:

A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Volume
D. None

Q15. Which of the following is a polymer?

A. Ethanol
B. Polyethylene
C. Methane
D. Benzene

Q16. The IUPAC name of CH₃–CH₂–OH is:

A. Methanol
B. Ethanol
C. Propanol
D. Butanol

Q17. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

A. Glucose
B. Sucrose
C. Starch
D. Cellulose

Q18. Which of the following is an inert gas?

A. O₂
B. H₂
C. Ne
D. N₂

Q19. The bond angle in H₂O is approximately:

A. 90°
B. 104.5°
C. 120°
D. 180°

Q20. Which of the following is a strong base?

A. NaOH
B. NH₄OH
C. Al(OH)₃
D. CH₃COOH

Q21. The gas evolved in the reaction of Zn with dilute HCl is:

A. O₂
B. H₂
C. CO₂
D. Cl₂

Q22. Which of the following is a non-metal with metallic luster?

A. Sulfur
B. Phosphorus
C. Iodine
D. Oxygen

Q23. The number of sigma bonds in ethane (C₂H₆) is:

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Q24. Which of the following exhibits hydrogen bonding?

A. CH₄
B. H₂O
C. CO₂
D. O₂

Q25. The molecular mass of H₂SO₄ is:

A. 98 g/mol
B. 100 g/mol
C. 96 g/mol
D. 102 g/mol

Q26. Which acid is found in vinegar?

A. HCl
B. H₂SO₄
C. CH₃COOH
D. HNO₃

Q27. Which is a halogen?

A. O
B. Cl
C. N
D. H

Q28. The electronegativity of H is approximately:

A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 2.2
D. 3.0

Q29. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

A. N₂
B. O₂
C. CO₂
D. H₂

Q30. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?

A. Mercury
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Aluminum

Q31. The main product of combustion of methane is:

A. CO
B. CO₂ + H₂O
C. CH₄O
D. H₂

Q32. The most abundant element in the Earth’s crust is:

A. Silicon
B. Oxygen
C. Aluminum
D. Iron

Q33. The valency of Al in Al₂O₃ is:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q34. Which of the following is a noble gas?

A. He
B. H
C. O
D. Cl

Q35. Which of the following is aromatic?

A. Benzene
B. Cyclohexane
C. Ethane
D. Propane

Q36. Which of the following is an ester?

A. CH₃COOH
B. CH₃COOCH₃
C. CH₄
D. CH₃OH

Q37. The major component of air is:

A. O₂
B. N₂
C. CO₂
D. H₂

Q38. Which of the following is a reducing agent?

A. KMnO₄
B. H₂
C. HNO₃
D. Cl₂

Q39. The pH of pure water at 25°C is:

A. 7
B. 0
C. 14
D. 1

Q40. The IUPAC name of CH₃–CH₃ is:

A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Propane
D. Butane

Mathematics Questions (Q1–45)

Q1. If x25x+6=0x^2 – 5x + 6 = 0x2−5x+6=0, then x = ?

A. 2, 3
B. 1, 6
C. –2, –3
D. 3, 4

Q2. The sum of first 20 natural numbers is:

A. 210
B. 200
C. 190
D. 220

Q3. If A = [1234]\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2\\3 & 4\end{bmatrix}[13​24​], det(A) = ?

A. –2
B. 2
C. 1
D. –1

Q4. The derivative of x3x^3x3 is:

A. 3x²
B. x²
C. 3x
D. x³

Q5. The integral xdx\int x dx∫xdx = ?

A. x² / 2 + C
B. x² + C
C. 2x + C
D. 1/x + C

Q6. The roots of x2+4x+3=0x^2 + 4x + 3 = 0x2+4x+3=0 are:

A. –1, –3
B. 1, 3
C. –1, 3
D. 1, –3

Q7. The solution of 2x + 3 = 7 is:

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1

Q8. The sum of squares of first 5 natural numbers is:

A. 30
B. 35
C. 55
D. 50

Q9. The distance between points (1,2) and (4,6) is:

A. 5
B. √20
C. √18
D. 6

Q10. The equation of a line passing through origin with slope 2 is:

A. y = 2x
B. y = x + 2
C. y = x – 2
D. y = ½ x

Q11. If f(x) = x² + 2x, then f(3) = ?

A. 12
B. 15
C. 18
D. 9

Q12. The sum of first n odd numbers is:

A. n²
B. n(n + 1)
C. 2n²
D. n(n – 1)

Q13. The derivative of cos x is:

A. sin x
B. –sin x
C. cos x
D. –cos x

Q14. The integral 1/xdx\int 1/x dx∫1/xdx = ?

A. ln|x| + C
B. x + C
C. 1/x + C
D. e^x + C

Q15. The slope of line 3x – 4y + 7 = 0 is:

A. 3/4
B. 4/3
C. –3/4
D. –4/3

Q16. The roots of x2+x6=0x^2 + x – 6 = 0x2+x–6=0 are:

A. 2, –3
B. 3, –2
C. 1, –6
D. –1, 6

Q17. The sum of first n natural numbers is:

A. n(n + 1)/2
B. n²
C. n(n – 1)/2
D. n³

Q18. The value of tan 45° is:

A. 0
B. 1
C. √3
D. √2

Q19. The solution of 3x – 7 = 2 is:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q20. The solution of 2x + 3y = 6 and x – y = 1 is:

A. x = 1, y = 2
B. x = 2, y = 1
C. x = 3, y = 0
D. x = 0, y = 2

Q21. The derivative of exe^xex is:

A. e^x
B. x
C. 1
D. 0

Q22. If arithmetic mean of 2 and 8 is A, geometric mean is G, then A × G = ?

A. 12
B. 16
C. 18
D. 20

Q23. The integral 2xdx\int 2x dx∫2xdx = ?

A. x² + C
B. 2x² + C
C. x²/2 + C
D. 2 + C

Q24. The solution of x² – 9 = 0 is:

A. x = 3, –3
B. x = 9, –9
C. x = 0, 3
D. x = 1, –9

Q25. The sum of squares of first 3 natural numbers is:

A. 14
B. 12
C. 13
D. 11

Q26. The roots of x² – 4x + 4 = 0 are:

A. 2, 2
B. 4, 4
C. –2, –2
D. 1, 4

Q27. If x = 2 is a root of 2x² – kx + 4 = 0, then k = ?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

Q28. The value of cos 0° + sin 90° is:

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. √2

Q29. The roots of x² + 5x + 6 = 0 are:

A. –2, –3
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 6
D. –1, –6

Q30. The distance between points (–1, –2) and (3, 2) is:

A. 6
B. √20
C. √18
D. 8

Q31. The sum of first 10 even numbers is:

A. 100
B. 110
C. 120
D. 90

Q32. The solution of x² – x – 6 = 0 is:

A. 3, –2
B. 2, –3
C. 1, 6
D. –1, 6

Q33. If f(x) = x² + 1, f(3) = ?

A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

Q34. The sum of first 50 natural numbers is:

A. 1275
B. 1250
C. 1300
D. 1350

Q35. The derivative of x² + 3x is:

A. 2x + 3
B. 2x
C. 3x²
D. x²

Q36. The integral of x² dx is:

A. x³ / 3 + C
B. x² + C
C. 2x + C
D. 3x² + C

Q37. The slope of line y = 3x + 2 is:

A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. –3

Q38. The roots of x² – 5x + 6 = 0 are:

A. 2, 3
B. –2, –3
C. 1, 6
D. 3, 4

Q39. The solution of x² – 1 = 0 is:

A. 1, –1
B. 1, 1
C. –1, –1
D. 0, 1

Q40. The derivative of sin x is:

A. cos x
B. –cos x
C. sin x
D. –sin x

Q41. The integral cosxdx\int cos x dx∫cosxdx = ?

A. sin x + C
B. –sin x + C
C. cos x + C
D. –cos x + C

Q42. The solution of 5x – 10 = 0 is:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q43. The roots of x² – 2x – 3 = 0 are:

A. 3, –1
B. 1, –3
C. 2, –3
D. –2, 3

Q44. The sum of first n odd numbers is:

A. n²
B. n(n + 1)
C. 2n²
D. n(n – 1)

Q45. The derivative of e^(2x) is:

A. 2e^(2x)
B. e^(2x)
C. 2x e^(2x)
D. e^(x)

BITSAT Mock Test 2026 – Answer Key


Physics (Q1–40)

Q.NoAnswer
1C
2B
3A
4B
5C
6A
7C
8C
9C
10A
11B
12A
13D
14A
15A
16B
17A
18A
19B
20C
21B
22B
23A
24A
25C
26B
27A
28C
29A
30B
31A
32C
33B
34A
35A
36B
37A
38C
39A
40B

Chemistry (Q1–40)

Q.NoAnswer
1A
2B
3C
4C
5A
6B
7A
8C
9B
10B
11B
12A
13B
14B
15B
16B
17A
18C
19B
20A
21B
22C
23D
24B
25A
26C
27B
28C
29C
30A
31B
32A
33C
34A
35A
36B
37B
38B
39A
40B

Mathematics (Q1–45)

Q.NoAnswer
1A
2A
3A
4A
5A
6A
7A
8C
9B
10A
11B
12A
13B
14A
15A
16A
17A
18B
19B
20B
21A
22B
23A
24A
25A
26A
27C
28B
29A
30B
31A
32B
33B
34A
35A
36A
37A
38A
39A
40A
41A
42B
43A
44A
45A

Disclaimer:

This mock test and answer key is for practice and educational purposes only. It is not official and should be used to evaluate your preparation.