NISM Level 3 Ultra Hard Mock Test

🧪 NISM LEVEL 3 ULTRA–ULTRA HARD MOCK TEST (100 QUESTIONS)

⏱️ Time: 120 Minutes

📝 Questions: 100 MCQs

🎯 Difficulty: EXAM KILLER LEVEL

❌ Negative Marking: No (but tricky options)


📌 INSTRUCTIONS

  • Multiple options may look correct → choose BEST answer
  • Focus on concepts, not keywords
  • Questions include trap logic from real exam patterns
  • Don’t rush (time pressure is intentional)

🕒 START YOUR EXAM NOW


PART A: ADVANCED MARKET STRUCTURE (1–20)

  1. Price discovery in capital markets primarily depends on:
    A) RBI policy
    B) Demand–Supply interaction
    C) Government order
    D) Fixed pricing
  2. Which is NOT a function of financial market?
    A) Liquidity creation
    B) Risk transfer
    C) Price control by government
    D) Capital formation
  3. Book building differs from fixed price issue because:
    A) No investor participation
    B) Price is discovered via demand
    C) Only institutions invest
    D) No SEBI role
  4. Circuit filters are designed to:
    A) Increase volatility
    B) Prevent extreme price movement
    C) Fix share price
    D) Guarantee returns
  5. Market depth is best measured by:
    A) Number of companies
    B) Order book liquidity
    C) GDP
    D) Dividend yield
  6. Arbitrage opportunity exists when:
    A) Markets are efficient
    B) Price difference exists across markets
    C) No volatility exists
    D) Taxes increase
  7. Settlement cycle T+1 implies:
    A) Trade settles instantly
    B) Settlement after one working day
    C) Weekly settlement
    D) Monthly settlement
  8. Which market ensures capital formation?
    A) Primary market
    B) Secondary market
    C) Forex market
    D) Commodity market
  9. Liquidity is highest in:
    A) Penny stocks
    B) Large-cap stocks
    C) Unlisted securities
    D) Debentures only
  10. Insider trading violates:
    A) Market efficiency
    B) Banking rules
    C) Insurance rules
    D) Tax laws

PART B: MUTUAL FUNDS TRICK CONCEPTS (21–40)

  1. NAV is calculated using:
    A) Market rumors
    B) Net asset value of portfolio
    C) Fixed RBI rate
    D) Broker opinion
  2. Expense ratio directly reduces:
    A) Risk
    B) Returns
    C) NAV stability
    D) Tax liability
  3. Tracking error is used to measure:
    A) Active fund performance
    B) Index fund deviation
    C) SIP returns
    D) Dividend yield
  4. Beta > 1 indicates:
    A) Low volatility
    B) High volatility
    C) No risk
    D) Guaranteed return
  5. Alpha represents:
    A) Market return
    B) Excess return over benchmark
    C) Risk-free rate
    D) NAV change
  6. Exit load applies when:
    A) Buying units
    B) Selling before lock-in
    C) SIP start
    D) Dividend reinvestment
  7. STP is used for:
    A) Tax saving
    B) Fund transfer between schemes
    C) Stock trading
    D) IPO application
  8. SWP helps in:
    A) Investment growth only
    B) Regular withdrawal
    C) Tax calculation
    D) Market timing
  9. Debt funds are affected most by:
    A) Weather
    B) Interest rate movement
    C) IPO demand
    D) Dividend
  10. Mark-to-market is used to:
    A) Fix NAV
    B) Daily valuation adjustment
    C) Reduce tax
    D) Guarantee returns
  11. SIP advantage comes from:
    A) Market timing
    B) Rupee cost averaging
    C) Fixed return
    D) Zero risk
  12. Fund manager’s role is to:
    A) Guarantee returns
    B) Optimize portfolio
    C) Control SEBI
    D) Set NAV
  13. Open-ended funds allow:
    A) No redemption
    B) Continuous liquidity
    C) Fixed maturity
    D) Government control
  14. Closed-ended funds trade:
    A) Only OTC
    B) On stock exchange
    C) Only banks
    D) RBI window
  15. Risk in mutual funds depends mainly on:
    A) AMC brand
    B) Asset allocation
    C) Advertisement
    D) SIP date
  16. Debt fund risk increases due to:
    A) Interest rate rise
    B) Dividend increase
    C) NAV stability
    D) SIP inflow
  17. Mutual fund units are priced on:
    A) Face value
    B) NAV
    C) Market rumor
    D) Broker call
  18. Redemption means:
    A) Buying units
    B) Selling units
    C) Bonus issue
    D) IPO allotment
  19. Systematic risk in mutual funds is:
    A) Diversifiable
    B) Non-diversifiable
    C) Zero
    D) Fixed
  20. Equity funds are suitable for:
    A) Risk-free investors
    B) High-risk investors
    C) Only institutions
    D) Bank deposits

PART C: DERIVATIVES KILLER TRAPS (41–60)

  1. Futures contract is:
    A) Right only
    B) Obligation
    C) Insurance
    D) Gift
  2. Options provide:
    A) Obligation
    B) Right without obligation
    C) Fixed return
    D) No risk
  3. Call option profits when:
    A) Market falls
    B) Market rises
    C) Market stable
    D) No volatility
  4. Put option gains when:
    A) Market rises
    B) Market falls
    C) Market stable
    D) No trade
  5. Delta measures:
    A) Time decay
    B) Price sensitivity
    C) Tax impact
    D) Volume
  6. Theta represents:
    A) Time decay
    B) Risk premium
    C) Profit
    D) NAV change
  7. Hedging strategy aims to:
    A) Maximize profit
    B) Reduce risk
    C) Eliminate tax
    D) Increase volatility
  8. Futures pricing depends on:
    A) Arbitrary value
    B) Spot + cost of carry
    C) Dividend only
    D) RBI rate
  9. Open interest indicates:
    A) Price movement
    B) Active contracts
    C) Dividend flow
    D) Tax data
  10. Basis risk occurs due to:
    A) Perfect hedge
    B) Price mismatch
    C) Zero volatility
    D) Fixed price
  11. Leverage increases:
    A) Only safety
    B) Risk and return
    C) Only tax
    D) Only NAV
  12. Option premium depends on:
    A) Only stock price
    B) Multiple variables
    C) Only RBI rate
    D) Only dividend
  13. Futures are used for:
    A) Gambling only
    B) Hedging + speculation
    C) Banking
    D) Insurance
  14. Expiry date means:
    A) Start of contract
    B) End of contract
    C) Dividend date
    D) IPO date
  15. F&O segment belongs to:
    A) Primary market
    B) Derivatives market
    C) Banking
    D) Insurance
  16. Short selling means:
    A) Buying stock
    B) Selling borrowed stock
    C) Holding stock
    D) Bonus shares
  17. Volatility in derivatives means:
    A) Stability
    B) Price fluctuation
    C) Fixed return
    D) Dividend
  18. Margin requirement increases when:
    A) Risk increases
    B) Risk decreases
    C) NAV stable
    D) Dividend high
  19. Futures position is marked to market:
    A) Monthly
    B) Daily
    C) Yearly
    D) Never
  20. Arbitrage profit is:
    A) Risk-free
    B) High risk
    C) Fixed loss
    D) Tax-based

PART D: REGULATION TRAPS (61–80)

  1. SEBI’s primary objective is:
    A) Banking control
    B) Investor protection
    C) Tax collection
    D) Insurance regulation
  2. Insider trading violates:
    A) Market fairness
    B) Banking law
    C) Insurance rules
    D) GST rules
  3. KYC failure leads to:
    A) Bonus
    B) Account freeze
    C) Dividend
    D) IPO gain
  4. AML focuses on:
    A) Market growth
    B) Preventing money laundering
    C) IPO pricing
    D) Trading speed
  5. Broker acts as:
    A) Regulator
    B) Intermediary
    C) Government
    D) Investor
  6. Compliance ensures:
    A) Illegal profit
    B) Legal operation
    C) Market manipulation
    D) Fixed return
  7. SEBI can impose:
    A) Dividends
    B) Penalties
    C) Bonus shares
    D) Interest
  8. Grievance redressal is for:
    A) Profit increase
    B) Complaint resolution
    C) Trading system
    D) IPO launch
  9. Depository function is:
    A) Cash handling
    B) Electronic securities storage
    C) Banking loans
    D) Tax collection
  10. IPO allotment is based on:
    A) Broker choice
    B) SEBI guidelines
    C) Random guess
    D) Bank preference
  11. Market manipulation is:
    A) Legal
    B) Illegal
    C) Encouraged
    D) Neutral
  12. Audit ensures:
    A) Fraud
    B) Transparency
    C) Manipulation
    D) Loss
  13. Risk profiling determines:
    A) Tax rate
    B) Investor suitability
    C) Dividend
    D) IPO timing
  14. Arbitration solves:
    A) Market price
    B) Disputes
    C) Taxes
    D) Trading
  15. Investor protection fund protects:
    A) Brokers
    B) Investors
    C) Companies
    D) Government
  16. Compliance officer ensures:
    A) Profit
    B) Rules followed
    C) Trading loss
    D) Speculation
  17. SEBI headquarters is in:
    A) Delhi
    B) Mumbai
    C) Kolkata
    D) Chennai
  18. Depository participant acts as:
    A) Broker only
    B) Link between investor and depository
    C) Bank only
    D) SEBI agent
  19. Financial fraud detection is done through:
    A) Rumors
    B) Monitoring systems
    C) Guessing
    D) Ads
  20. Market integrity means:
    A) Manipulation
    B) Fair trading
    C) Insider trading
    D) Gambling

PART E: ULTRA CONCEPTUAL (81–100)

  1. Efficient market hypothesis assumes:
    A) No info
    B) All info reflected in price
    C) Insider advantage
    D) Fixed price
  2. Systematic risk is:
    A) Diversifiable
    B) Non-diversifiable
    C) Zero
    D) Negative
  3. Inflation reduces:
    A) Returns
    B) Purchasing power
    C) Brokerage
    D) NAV
  4. Real return equals:
    A) Nominal + inflation
    B) Nominal – inflation
    C) Only tax
    D) Only dividend
  5. Opportunity cost is:
    A) Profit
    B) Forgone alternative
    C) Dividend
    D) Bonus
  6. Portfolio diversification reduces:
    A) Risk
    B) Return
    C) Tax
    D) Brokerage
  7. Correlation measures:
    A) Tax
    B) Asset movement relationship
    C) Dividend
    D) Brokerage
  8. Rebalancing means:
    A) Holding
    B) Adjusting portfolio
    C) Selling all
    D) Buying one stock
  9. Liquidity premium is:
    A) Reward for illiquidity
    B) Tax
    C) Loss
    D) Brokerage
  10. Risk-return tradeoff means:
    A) High risk low return
    B) High risk high return
    C) No relation
    D) Fixed return
  11. Behavioral finance studies:
    A) Taxes
    B) Investor psychology
    C) Banking
    D) Insurance
  12. Herding causes:
    A) Stability
    B) Bubbles
    C) Fixed prices
    D) No trade
  13. Market bubble is:
    A) Undervaluation
    B) Overvaluation
    C) Stable market
    D) No demand
  14. Crash occurs due to:
    A) Panic selling
    B) Fixed demand
    C) RBI control
    D) Inflation only
  15. Systemic risk affects:
    A) One stock
    B) Entire system
    C) Mutual fund only
    D) FD only
  16. Sharpe ratio measures:
    A) Risk-adjusted return
    B) Tax
    C) Dividend
    D) Volume
  17. Financial leverage increases:
    A) Safety
    B) Risk
    C) Tax
    D) Stability
  18. Efficient diversification requires:
    A) Same assets
    B) Low correlation assets
    C) High tax assets
    D) Single stock
  19. Long-term investing benefits from:
    A) Gambling
    B) Compounding
    C) Loss
    D) Inflation
  20. Wealth creation depends on:
    A) Luck only
    B) Discipline + investing
    C) Trading only
    D) Borrowing

📊 LEVEL 3 ANSWER KEY (1–100)

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1B26B51B76B
2C27B52B77B
3B28B53B78B
4B29B54B79B
5B30B55B80B
6B31B56B81B
7B32B57B82B
8A33B58A83B
9B34B59B84B
10B35B60A85B
11B36B61B86B
12B37B62B87B
13B38B63B88B
14B39B64B89A
15A40B65B90B
16B41B66B91B
17B42B67B92B
18B43B68B93B
19B44B69B94A
20B45B70B95B
21B46B71B96A
22B47B72B97B
23B48B73B98B
24B49B74B99B
25B50B75B100B