AEDO Stage-2 Main Exam Mock Test

AEDO Stage-2 Main Exam Mock Test

AEDO Stage-2 – Main Exam Mock Test

Part 1 – Agriculture & Agronomy (Questions 1–20)

1. Which of the following irrigation scheduling methods is most suitable for optimizing water use efficiency in wheat?
A. Fixed interval method
B. Soil moisture-based method
C. Crop growth stage-based method
D. Any method

2. In soil fertility management, the recommended NPK ratio for maize under high fertility soil is:
A. 120:60:40
B. 100:50:50
C. 80:40:40
D. 150:60:60

3. Which rice variety is suitable for aerobic conditions with less water availability?
A. IR64
B. Samba Mahsuri
C. DRR Dhan 42
D. PR 114

4. The most limiting nutrient in paddy soils of Eastern India is usually:
A. Nitrogen
B. Phosphorus
C. Potassium
D. Zinc

5. In crop rotation planning, which combination is recommended to improve soil nitrogen?
A. Wheat–Rice
B. Maize–Soybean
C. Cotton–Sugarcane
D. Rice–Sugarcane

6. The crown root initiation stage in wheat is critically influenced by:
A. Nitrogen application
B. Phosphorus application
C. Potassium application
D. Zinc application

7. Which legume is most suitable as a green manure crop in rice-wheat system?
A. Sesbania
B. Crotalaria
C. Sunhemp
D. All of the above

8. The main causal organism of powdery mildew in cucurbits is:
A. Podosphaera xanthii
B. Erysiphe polygoni
C. Sclerotium rolfsii
D. Alternaria cucumerina

9. Which pesticide is systemic and effective against sucking pests?
A. Malathion
B. Imidacloprid
C. Quinalphos
D. Endosulfan

10. The critical stage of irrigation in sugarcane is:
A. Germination stage
B. Tillering stage
C. Grand growth stage
D. Maturity stage

11. The optimum C:N ratio for composting crop residues is:
A. 5–10
B. 15–20
C. 25–30
D. 40–50

12. Which weed is the most problematic in transplanted rice fields in India?
A. Cyperus rotundus
B. Echinochloa colonum
C. Parthenium hysterophorus
D. Amaranthus sp.

13. Which biofertilizer improves phosphorus availability in soils?
A. Rhizobium
B. Azotobacter
C. Phosphate Solubilizing Bacteria (PSB)
D. Azospirillum

14. In plant breeding, the main advantage of hybrid rice over traditional varieties is:
A. Pest resistance
B. Higher yield and heterosis
C. Drought tolerance
D. Shorter growing period

15. The recommended seed rate for wheat in irrigated conditions is:
A. 60–80 kg/ha
B. 100–120 kg/ha
C. 30–40 kg/ha
D. 150–180 kg/ha

16. The water requirement for one hectare of sugarcane per day during peak growth is approximately:
A. 3–5 mm/day
B. 10–12 mm/day
C. 15–20 mm/day
D. 25–30 mm/day

17. Which fungicide is recommended for controlling leaf blast in rice?
A. Carbendazim
B. Tricyclazole
C. Mancozeb
D. Copper oxychloride

18. Which cereal crop shows maximum response to potassium application?
A. Wheat
B. Rice
C. Maize
D. Barley

19. In intercropping systems, the Land Equivalent Ratio (LER) > 1 indicates:
A. Mono-cropping is better
B. Intercropping is more productive
C. Same productivity as monocrop
D. Lower productivity

20. The recommended spacing for transplanted rice in irrigated medium lands is:
A. 15×15 cm
B. 20×15 cm
C. 20×20 cm
D. 25×15 cm

Part 2 – Horticulture, Plant Pathology & Pest Management (Questions 21–40)

21. The scientific name of mango is:
A. Mangifera indica
B. Citrus limon
C. Psidium guajava
D. Anacardium occidentale

22. The propagation method for apple orchards commonly used is:
A. Seed sowing
B. Grafting
C. Layering
D. Cutting

23. Which fruit crop is highly sensitive to frost?
A. Guava
B. Citrus
C. Apple
D. Banana

24. The most serious disease of tomato caused by fungus is:
A. Bacterial wilt
B. Early blight
C. Late blight
D. Powdery mildew

25. The causal organism of wilt in cotton is:
A. Fusarium oxysporum f. sp. vasinfectum
B. Rhizoctonia solani
C. Xanthomonas campestris
D. Puccinia spp.

26. Which insect is a major pest of stored grains?
A. Stem borer
B. Rice weevil
C. Aphids
D. Jassids

27. The main mode of transmission of leaf curl virus in cotton is:
A. Aphids
B. Whiteflies
C. Thrips
D. Mealybugs

28. Which bio-control agent is used against root-knot nematodes?
A. Trichoderma
B. Bacillus thuringiensis
C. Pseudomonas fluorescens
D. Rhizobium

29. The most effective method to control Cyperus rotundus (nutgrass) is:
A. Flooding fields
B. Hand weeding and herbicide application
C. Mulching with crop residues
D. Crop rotation with legumes

30. The most common pest in brinjal causing leaf damage is:
A. Fruit borer
B. Shoot borer
C. Aphids
D. Mealy bug

31. Which fungicide is recommended for controlling powdery mildew in cucurbits?
A. Mancozeb
B. Tricyclazole
C. Carbendazim
D. Sulphur

32. The insect responsible for transmitting tungro disease in rice is:
A. Stem borer
B. Leafhopper
C. Whitefly
D. Aphid

33. The major disease of banana caused by Fusarium is:
A. Banana bunchy top virus
B. Panama wilt
C. Sigatoka leaf spot
D. Black sigatoka

34. Which of the following insecticides is systemic and effective against sucking pests?
A. Malathion
B. Endosulfan
C. Imidacloprid
D. Quinalphos

35. The practice of intercropping maize with legume primarily aims to:
A. Increase pest incidence
B. Improve nitrogen availability and overall yield
C. Reduce labor requirement
D. Shorten crop duration

36. The weed considered most problematic in cotton fields in India is:
A. Parthenium hysterophorus
B. Cynodon dactylon
C. Amaranthus sp.
D. Cyperus rotundus

37. The major pest in rice causing deadheart formation is:
A. Leaf folder
B. Stem borer
C. Brown planthopper
D. Gall midge

38. Which fungal disease is seed-borne in pulses like gram?
A. Fusarium wilt
B. Powdery mildew
C. Ascochyta blight
D. Leaf spot

39. The primary mode of weed seed dispersal in agricultural fields is:
A. Water
B. Wind
C. Mechanical (farm equipment)
D. All of the above

40. Which bio-control agent is used against soil-borne fungal pathogens?
A. Bacillus thuringiensis
B. Trichoderma spp.
C. Pseudomonas fluorescens
D. Rhizobium

Part 3 – Soil, Water & Fertilizer Management (Questions 41–60)

41. The cation exchange capacity (CEC) of a soil primarily indicates its:
A. Ability to hold and exchange nutrient cations
B. Water-holding capacity
C. Soil texture
D. Soil pH

42. Which soil type has the highest water-holding capacity?
A. Sandy soil
B. Loamy soil
C. Clay soil
D. Saline soil

43. The critical pH range for most crops in India is:
A. 4.5–5.5
B. 5.5–7.5
C. 7.5–8.5
D. 3.5–4.5

44. The main function of potassium in plants is:
A. Photosynthesis
B. Enzyme activation and water regulation
C. Protein synthesis
D. Seed germination

45. Which fertilizer supplies both nitrogen and phosphorus?
A. Urea
B. Single Super Phosphate (SSP)
C. Diammonium Phosphate (DAP)
D. Muriate of Potash

46. The recommended irrigation method for water-scarce sugarcane fields is:
A. Flood irrigation
B. Drip irrigation
C. Furrow irrigation
D. Basin irrigation

47. Which green manure crop is effective for short-duration soil fertility improvement?
A. Sesbania
B. Sunhemp
C. Crotalaria
D. All of the above

48. The optimum soil moisture content for seed germination is:
A. Field capacity
B. Permanent wilting point
C. Saturation
D. Oven-dry

49. The recommended NPK ratio for wheat under irrigated conditions is:
A. 120:60:40
B. 100:50:50
C. 150:50:50
D. 80:40:40

50. In soil, micronutrient deficiency of zinc often shows:
A. Interveinal chlorosis in young leaves
B. Yellowing of old leaves
C. Leaf rolling
D. Stunted root growth only

51. The most efficient irrigation method in row crops is:
A. Basin irrigation
B. Drip irrigation
C. Flood irrigation
D. Furrow irrigation

52. The main advantage of fertigation is:
A. Reduces fertilizer loss and increases nutrient use efficiency
B. Reduces water application
C. Reduces crop growth
D. Increases pest incidence

53. Soil organic matter improves all of the following except:
A. Soil structure
B. Water retention
C. Cation exchange capacity
D. Soil acidity

54. The critical stage of irrigation in maize for maximum yield is:
A. Germination
B. Tasseling to silking stage
C. Vegetative stage
D. Harvest

55. A farmer applies 100 kg of urea (46% N) to a field. How much actual nitrogen is applied?
A. 46 kg
B. 50 kg
C. 40 kg
D. 60 kg

56. The process of adding lime to acidic soils is called:
A. Liming
B. Calcification
C. Neutralization
D. Fertigation

57. The primary benefit of using phosphate solubilizing bacteria (PSB) is:
A. Nitrogen fixation
B. Making soil phosphorus available to plants
C. Pest control
D. Weed suppression

58. Soil pH below 5.5 can cause deficiency of:
A. Boron
B. Manganese toxicity
C. Zinc deficiency
D. All of the above

59. The field capacity of a loamy soil is approximately:
A. 10–15%
B. 25–30%
C. 40–50%
D. 5–10%

60. The calculation of water requirement for 1 hectare crop for 10 days: If ETc = 5 mm/day, total water required is:
A. 500 m³
B. 50,000 m³
C. 5,000 m³
D. 10,000 m³

Part 4 – Agricultural Extension, Policy & Horticulture (Questions 61–80)

61. The primary objective of agricultural extension is to:
A. Increase agricultural taxes
B. Transfer improved agricultural technologies to farmers
C. Reduce crop production
D. Promote only traditional farming

62. The Training & Visit (T&V) system was introduced in India with the support of:
A. FAO
B. World Bank
C. IMF
D. IFAD

63. The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) recommends:
A. Minimum Support Prices (MSP)
B. Loan waivers
C. Fertilizer subsidies
D. Export policies

64. Which extension method is most effective for demonstrating new technologies to farmers?
A. Mass media
B. Field demonstration
C. Leaflets
D. Workshops

65. The primary role of cooperatives in agriculture is to:
A. Create market monopoly
B. Provide inputs and services collectively
C. Reduce farm productivity
D. Eliminate government intervention

66. The gestation period of a cow is approximately:
A. 210 days
B. 240 days
C. 280 days
D. 300 days

67. Which cattle breed is known for high milk production in India?
A. Gir
B. Sahiwal
C. Holstein Friesian
D. Red Sindhi

68. Broiler poultry is raised primarily for:
A. Egg production
B. Meat production
C. Feather production
D. Breeding

69. Horticulture involves cultivation of:
A. Cereals
B. Fruits, vegetables, flowers, and ornamentals
C. Pulses
D. Fibers

70. Which fruit crop is commonly propagated by grafting?
A. Banana
B. Mango
C. Papaya
D. Pineapple

71. The scientific name of potato is:
A. Solanum tuberosum
B. Lycopersicon esculentum
C. Capsicum annuum
D. Brassica oleracea

72. Which vegetable belongs to the family Solanaceae?
A. Onion
B. Tomato
C. Cabbage
D. Carrot

73. The practice of removing excess flowers/fruits to improve quality is called:
A. Pruning
B. Thinning
C. Training
D. Pinching

74. The economic principle stating farmers aim to maximize profit is:
A. Law of demand
B. Principle of profit maximization
C. Law of supply
D. Law of substitution

75. The marketable surplus refers to:
A. Total crop production
B. Portion retained for family use
C. Quantity available for sale after household consumption
D. Quantity sold in market

76. NABARD was established in:
A. 1975
B. 1982
C. 1991
D. 2000

77. Operation Flood in India is associated with:
A. Milk production
B. Wheat production
C. Rice production
D. Fish production

78. The scientific name of sugarcane is:
A. Saccharum officinarum
B. Zea mays
C. Oryza sativa
D. Triticum aestivum

79. The practice of keeping bees for honey is called:
A. Sericulture
B. Apiculture
C. Pisciculture
D. Vermiculture

80. The main objective of agricultural marketing is to:
A. Reduce crop production
B. Ensure efficient movement of goods from producer to consumer
C. Eliminate farmers from markets
D. Increase storage losses

Part 5 – General Awareness, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude (Questions 81–100)

81. The Green Revolution in India primarily targeted increasing production of:
A. Pulses
B. Wheat and rice
C. Cotton
D. Oilseeds

82. The major irrigation project on the Godavari River is:
A. Hirakud Dam
B. Polavaram Project
C. Sardar Sarovar Dam
D. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam

83. Which of the following is a leguminous crop?
A. Maize
B. Soybean
C. Wheat
D. Rice

84. The scientific name of chickpea (gram) is:
A. Cicer arietinum
B. Lens culinaris
C. Vigna radiata
D. Phaseolus vulgaris

85. Which of the following is a biological method of pest control?
A. Spraying chemical insecticides
B. Using predatory insects to control pests
C. Crop rotation
D. Flooding fields

86. Next number in series 3, 6, 12, 24, … is:
A. 36
B. 48
C. 50
D. 60

87. If 1 quintal = 100 kg, how many quintals are there in 3.5 tons?
A. 30
B. 35
C. 25
D. 40

88. A farmer produces 750 kg of wheat on 3 hectares. Yield per hectare is:
A. 200 kg
B. 250 kg
C. 300 kg
D. 350 kg

89. If the selling price of a crop is ₹60/kg and cost price is ₹50/kg, profit % is:
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 30%

90. Which of the following crops is a Kharif crop?
A. Wheat
B. Maize
C. Barley
D. Gram

91. Fertilizer labeled 12:32:16 contains primary nutrient:
A. Nitrogen
B. Phosphorus
C. Potassium
D. Calcium

92. Major pest attacking cotton boll is:
A. Stem borer
B. Aphids
C. Bollworm
D. Mealy bug

93. Scientific name of tomato is:
A. Solanum lycopersicum
B. Solanum tuberosum
C. Capsicum annuum
D. Lycopersicon esculentum

94. Greenhouse gas responsible for global warming is mainly:
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen

95. In agricultural marketing, APMC stands for:
A. Agricultural Produce Market Committee
B. Agriculture Price Monitoring Cell
C. Association of Producers & Marketers of Crops
D. Agricultural Product Management Council

96. A farmer mixes 4 kg fertilizer A (₹50/kg) with 6 kg fertilizer B (₹60/kg). Average cost per kg is:
A. ₹54
B. ₹56
C. ₹58
D. ₹60

97. Next term in series 7, 14, 28, 56, … is:
A. 70
B. 84
C. 112
D. 120

98. Intercropping is best defined as:
A. Growing different crops in rotation
B. Growing two or more crops simultaneously on same land
C. Growing only one crop per season
D. Growing crops under greenhouses

99. A farmer irrigates 5 ha land. System delivers 3 L/sec/ha. Total liters in 4 hours = ?
A. 216,000 L
B. 180,000 L
C. 120,000 L
D. 72,000 L

100. Scientific name of sugarcane is:
A. Saccharum officinarum
B. Zea mays
C. Oryza sativa
D. Triticum aestivum

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21A46B71A96B
22B47D72B97C
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24C49A74B99B
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Disclaimer
This mock test is designed for educational purposes only. Questions are original and inspired by previous AEDO exam patterns. Results from this test do not guarantee success in the actual exam.