| Feature | Details |
|---|---|
| Mode of Exam | Offline (Pen & Paper) |
| Type of Questions | Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) |
| Total Questions | 100 |
| Total Marks | 100 |
| Duration | 3 Hours |
| Negative Marking | ❌ No negative marking |
| Subject | Questions |
|---|---|
| Constitutional Law | 10 |
| Indian Penal Code (IPC) | 8 |
| Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) | 10 |
| Civil Procedure Code (CPC) | 10 |
| Evidence Act | 8 |
| Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) | 4 |
| Family Law | 8 |
| Public Interest Litigation (PIL) | 4 |
| Administrative Law | 3 |
| Professional Ethics & Bar Council Rules | 4 |
| Company Law | 2 |
| Environmental Law | 2 |
| Cyber Law | 2 |
| Labour & Industrial Law | 4 |
| Law of Tort | 5 |
| Intellectual Property Law | 2 |
| Land Acquisition Act | 2 |
| Taxation Law | 4 |
| Miscellaneous Topics | 8 |
Total Questions: 100 | Mode: MCQ | Duration: 3 Hours
Part 1 – Constitutional Law (10 Questions)
Q1
The Directive Principles of State Policy are:
A. Justiciable in nature
B. Non-justiciable in nature
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Q2
Article 32 of the Constitution provides:
A. Right to Constitutional Remedies
B. Right to Freedom of Speech
C. Right to Property
D. Directive Principles
Q3
Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Education
C. Right against Exploitation
D. Right to Work
Q4
The power of judicial review in India is derived from:
A. Article 13
B. Article 32
C. Article 368
D. Articles 13, 32 and basic structure
Q5
Which of the following can amend the Fundamental Rights?
A. Parliament by ordinary procedure
B. Parliament by special procedure
C. Supreme Court
D. President
Q6
The Basic Structure Doctrine was laid down in:
A. Kesavananda Bharati Case
B. Golaknath Case
C. Minerva Mills Case
D. Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain
Q7
Which Article deals with Freedom of Religion?
A. 14–18
B. 19–22
C. 25–28
D. 32–36
Q8
The principle of separation of powers is:
A. Explicitly mentioned in the Constitution
B. Implied from Articles 50 and 121
C. Only applicable to the Legislature
D. Non-existent
Q9
The President’s Rule under Article 356 can last for:
A. 3 months initially
B. 6 months initially
C. 12 months initially
D. 1 month initially
Q10
Which of the following is not covered under the Directive Principles?
A. Promotion of international peace
B. Uniform civil code
C. Free legal aid to the poor
D. Right to property
Part 2 – Indian Penal Code (IPC) (10 Questions)
Q11
The punishment for murder under Section 302 IPC is:
A. Death or imprisonment for life
B. Imprisonment up to 10 years
C. Fine only
D. Imprisonment up to 7 years
Q12
Which section of IPC deals with cheating?
A. 415
B. 420
C. 406
D. 304
Q13
Section 375 IPC defines:
A. Theft
B. Murder
C. Rape
D. Assault
Q14
Which of the following is compoundable offence under IPC?
A. Murder
B. Theft
C. Hurt (simple)
D. Rape
Q15
The term “criminal conspiracy” is defined under:
A. Section 120A
B. Section 121
C. Section 125
D. Section 299
Q16
Section 302 IPC covers:
A. Punishment for culpable homicide
B. Punishment for murder
C. Punishment for grievous hurt
D. Punishment for attempt to murder
Q17
Which section deals with abetment of suicide of a child or insane person?
A. 306
B. 309
C. 305
D. 304B
Q18
Which section prescribes punishment for criminal intimidation?
A. 503
B. 504
C. 506
D. 507
Q19
Which of the following does not constitute an offence under IPC?
A. Theft
B. Cheating
C. Breach of contract
D. Hurt
Q20
Punishment for attempt to commit murder is provided under:
A. Section 307
B. Section 302
C. Section 304
D. Section 306
Part 3 – Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) (10 Questions)
Q21
The maximum period of detention without filing a charge sheet under CrPC is:
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 7 days
Q22
Which section deals with cognizable offences?
A. Section 2(c)
B. Section 2(l)
C. Section 154
D. Section 41
Q23
Bail for a bailable offence can be granted by:
A. Police only
B. Magistrate only
C. Police or Magistrate
D. Court of Session only
Q24
Which section of CrPC provides for summary trials?
A. Section 260
B. Section 262
C. Section 263
D. Section 265
Q25
The term “cognizance of offence” is defined under:
A. Section 190
B. Section 197
C. Section 173
D. Section 156
Q26
Who can investigate a cognizable offence?
A. Magistrate
B. Police
C. Public prosecutor
D. District Collector
Q27
The period of police remand cannot exceed:
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 10 days
D. 21 days
Q28
Which section authorizes search and seizure?
A. Section 50
B. Section 51
C. Section 52
D. Section 53
Q29
The concept of private complaint is defined under:
A. Section 190(1)(b)
B. Section 200
C. Section 203
D. Section 205
Q30
Who prepares the charge sheet after investigation?
A. Magistrate
B. Police
C. Public prosecutor
D. Court of Session
Part 4 – Evidence Act & Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) (10 Questions)
Q31
Under the Evidence Act, oral evidence must be:
A. Written
B. Direct
C. Hearsay
D. None of the above
Q32
Which section defines relevancy of facts?
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Q33
Admission made by a party is covered under:
A. Section 17
B. Section 19
C. Section 21
D. Section 22
Q34
The burden of proof in criminal cases lies on:
A. Complainant
B. Accused
C. Prosecutor
D. Court
Q35
Which of the following is not an exclusionary rule of evidence?
A. Confession caused by inducement
B. Dying declaration
C. Relevancy of facts
D. Admission under threat
Q36
Which section covers dying declaration?
A. Section 32(1)
B. Section 33
C. Section 34
D. Section 35
Q37
Which of the following is a form of ADR?
A. Arbitration
B. Mediation
C. Conciliation
D. All of the above
Q38
Arbitration award can be challenged under:
A. Section 34 of Arbitration Act
B. Section 35 of CrPC
C. Section 36 of Evidence Act
D. Section 37 of Civil Procedure Code
Q39
Mediation is:
A. Binding like arbitration
B. Voluntary and non-binding
C. Only for criminal cases
D. Conducted by the court only
Q40
Which of the following statements about ADR is correct?
A. ADR is faster and cost-effective
B. ADR always results in a binding decision
C. ADR is only available for criminal disputes
D. ADR replaces courts entirely
Part 5 – Family Law, Labour Law, Cyber Law & Miscellaneous (40 Questions)
Q41 – Family Law
Divorce by mutual consent is governed by:
A. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B. Indian Divorce Act, 1869
C. Special Marriage Act, 1954
D. All of the above
Q42
Maintenance for wife and children is provided under:
A. Section 125 CrPC
B. Section 10 IPC
C. Section 18 Evidence Act
D. Section 3 Family Courts Act
Q43
Guardianship is primarily governed by:
A. Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act
B. Guardianship and Wards Act
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
Q44 – Labour Law
Minimum Wages Act applies to:
A. All workers in scheduled employments
B. Only government employees
C. Only factory workers
D. All citizens
Q45
Industrial disputes are resolved under:
A. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
B. Labour Laws Amendment Act, 2018
C. Factories Act, 1948
D. Trade Union Act, 1926
Q46 – Cyber Law
Which section of IT Act deals with cyber terrorism?
A. Section 66F
B. Section 43
C. Section 65
D. Section 70
Q47
Digital signature is legally recognized under:
A. Section 5 IT Act
B. Section 2 IT Act
C. Section 3 IT Act
D. Section 4 IT Act
Q48
Which of the following is a cybercrime?
A. Hacking
B. Phishing
C. Identity theft
D. All of the above
Q49
Intellectual property rights include:
A. Copyright
B. Trademark
C. Patent
D. All of the above
Q50
Who can register a patent in India?
A. Controller General of Patents
B. Ministry of Law
C. Supreme Court
D. State Government
Q51
Which law governs environmental protection in India?
A. Environment Protection Act, 1986
B. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
C. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
D. All of the above
Q52
The Consumer Protection Act deals with:
A. Protection of consumer rights
B. Consumer disputes redressal
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
Q53
Who enforces competition law in India?
A. Ministry of Law
B. Competition Commission of India
C. Supreme Court
D. RBI
Q54
Which section of CrPC deals with Cognizance of offences by Magistrate?
A. Section 190
B. Section 200
C. Section 201
D. Section 202
Q55
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is based on:
A. Article 32
B. Article 226
C. Both A & B
D. Article 14
Q56
Who can file a PIL in India?
A. Only affected person
B. Any public-spirited person
C. Only lawyer
D. Only NGO
Q57
Which of the following is not a cyber law offence?
A. Cyberstalking
B. Online fraud
C. Physical assault
D. Hacking
Q58
Right to Information Act was enacted in:
A. 2002
B. 2005
C. 2000
D. 1999
Q59
Companies Act 2013 governs:
A. Corporate governance
B. Directors’ duties
C. Company incorporation
D. All of the above
Q60
Which section of IPC deals with dowry death?
A. 304B
B. 498A
C. 306
D. 307
Q61
Which law governs land acquisition in India?
A. Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition Act, 2013
B. Land Revenue Act
C. Transfer of Property Act
D. Limitation Act
Q62
Which section of IPC deals with kidnapping?
A. 361
B. 362
C. 363
D. 364
Q63
Who can grant protection to witnesses?
A. Magistrate
B. Police
C. Court
D. All of the above
Q64
Which Act governs foreign exchange regulation in India?
A. FEMA 1999
B. FERA 1973
C. RBI Act
D. Companies Act
Q65
Consumer disputes are heard by:
A. District Forum
B. State Commission
C. National Commission
D. All of the above
Q66
Which is a compoundable offence under IPC?
A. Assault causing hurt
B. Murder
C. Robbery
D. Rape
Q67
Cyber crimes under IT Act include:
A. Phishing
B. Virus spreading
C. Cyber terrorism
D. All of the above
Q68
Environmental Impact Assessment is required under:
A. Environment Protection Act
B. Air & Water Acts
C. Forest Conservation Act
D. All of the above
Q69
Who can impose penalties under Competition Act?
A. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
B. Competition Commission of India
C. Supreme Court
D. High Court
Q70
Labour law applies to:
A. Workers in factories
B. Employees in offices
C. Employees in shops
D. All of the above
Q71
Special Marriage Act is applicable to:
A. Only Hindus
B. Only Muslims
C. All citizens irrespective of religion
D. Only Christians
Q72
Cyber Appellate Tribunal was established under:
A. IT Act 2000
B. Companies Act 2013
C. Arbitration Act
D. Criminal Law Amendment
Q73
Which Article deals with protection of minorities?
A. Article 29
B. Article 30
C. Article 25
D. Both 29 & 30
Q74
Companies Act requires Annual General Meeting (AGM) of:
A. Private Company
B. Public Company
C. Both
D. Only Listed Company
Q75
Which section IPC deals with public nuisance?
A. 268
B. 269
C. 270
D. 271
Q76
Consumer Protection Act provides:
A. Compensation for deficiency of service
B. Compensation for defective goods
C. Both A & B
D. Only A
Q77
Which of the following is non-cognizable offence?
A. Murder
B. Theft
C. Rape
D. Kidnapping
Q78
Labour disputes are settled by:
A. Labour Courts
B. Industrial Tribunal
C. National Tribunal
D. All of the above
Q79
Arbitration award is binding unless:
A. Challenged under Section 34
B. Challenged under Section 35
C. Challenged under Section 36
D. None of the above
Q80
Which law governs cyber contracts?
A. Indian Contract Act + IT Act
B. IPC
C. CrPC
D. Companies Act
Q81
Dowry prohibition is under:
A. Dowry Prohibition Act 1961
B. IPC 304B
C. Both A & B
D. None
Q82
Punishment for abetment of suicide is:
A. Section 306 IPC
B. Section 309 IPC
C. Section 305 IPC
D. Section 304 IPC
Q83
Who can initiate PIL in High Court?
A. Only affected person
B. Public spirited individual
C. NGO
D. B & C
Q84
Which of the following is compoundable under CrPC?
A. Simple hurt
B. Murder
C. Robbery
D. Kidnapping
Q85
Which of the following is non-compoundable?
A. Rape
B. Simple hurt
C. Criminal breach of trust
D. Defamation
Q86
Who decides civil disputes under 2 lakh?
A. District Forum
B. State Commission
C. National Commission
D. High Court
Q87
Companies Act regulates:
A. Shareholder rights
B. Director duties
C. Corporate governance
D. All of the above
Q88
Section 498A IPC deals with:
A. Cruelty to wife
B. Theft
C. Dowry death
D. Murder
Q89
Right to Information (RTI) is under:
A. RTI Act 2005
B. Constitution
C. CrPC
D. IPC
Q90
Which Article provides for Judicial Review?
A. Article 13
B. Article 32
C. Article 226
D. All of the above
Q91
Which Act governs foreign direct investment (FDI) in India?
A. FEMA 1999
B. Companies Act 2013
C. RBI Act
D. FDI Policy
Q92
Environmental law includes:
A. Water Pollution Act
B. Air Pollution Act
C. Environment Protection Act
D. All of the above
Q93
Cyber crime investigation is conducted by:
A. Police
B. NIA
C. Special Cyber Cells
D. All of the above
Q94
Section 304B IPC is applicable to:
A. Dowry death
B. Murder
C. Robbery
D. Fraud
Q95
Which section IPC covers abetment of offence?
A. 107
B. 108
C. 120
D. 121
Q96
Who is competent to grant injunction in civil cases?
A. Civil Court
B. Magistrate
C. Supreme Court
D. Arbitration Tribunal
Q97
Which of the following is non-cognizable?
A. Hurt
B. Rape
C. Murder
D. Kidnapping
Q98
Section 41 CrPC empowers:
A. Police to arrest without warrant in cognizable offences
B. Police to arrest in bailable offences only
C. Magistrate to arrest
D. Court to arrest
Q99
Which Act governs arbitration and conciliation in India?
A. Arbitration & Conciliation Act 1996
B. Civil Procedure Code
C. IT Act
D. Companies Act
Q100
Cyber law offences under IT Act are:
A. Hacking
B. Identity theft
C. Publishing obscene material online
D. All of the above
Part 1 – Constitutional Law (Q1–10)
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | 6 | A |
| 2 | A | 7 | C |
| 3 | D | 8 | B |
| 4 | D | 9 | A |
| 5 | B | 10 | D |
Part 2 – Indian Penal Code (IPC) (Q11–20)
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|
| 11 | A | 16 | B |
| 12 | B | 17 | C |
| 13 | C | 18 | C |
| 14 | C | 19 | C |
| 15 | A | 20 | A |
Part 3 – Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) (Q21–30)
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|
| 21 | B | 26 | B |
| 22 | A | 27 | B |
| 23 | C | 28 | B |
| 24 | A | 29 | A |
| 25 | A | 30 | B |
Part 4 – Evidence Act & ADR (Q31–40)
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|
| 31 | B | 36 | A |
| 32 | B | 37 | D |
| 33 | A | 38 | A |
| 34 | B | 39 | B |
| 35 | C | 40 | A |
Part 5 – Family Law, Labour, Cyber Law & Misc (Q41–100)
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 41 | D | 61 | A | 81 | C |
| 42 | A | 62 | C | 82 | A |
| 43 | C | 63 | D | 83 | D |
| 44 | A | 64 | A | 84 | A |
| 45 | A | 65 | D | 85 | A |
| 46 | A | 66 | A | 86 | A |
| 47 | A | 67 | D | 87 | D |
| 48 | D | 68 | D | 88 | A |
| 49 | D | 69 | B | 89 | A |
| 50 | A | 70 | D | 90 | D |
| 51 | D | 71 | C | 91 | D |
| 52 | C | 72 | A | 92 | D |
| 53 | B | 73 | D | 93 | D |
| 54 | A | 74 | B | 94 | A |
| 55 | C | 75 | A | 95 | A |
| 56 | B | 76 | C | 96 | A |
| 57 | C | 77 | A | 97 | A |
| 58 | A | 78 | D | 98 | A |
| 59 | D | 79 | A | 99 | A |
| 60 | A | 80 | A | 100 | D |
Short Disclaimer
This mock test is created for educational purposes only. Questions are inspired by previous AIBE papers but are not copied from official exams. Intended solely for practice and preparation for the AIBE exam.