Exam Pattern
- Mode of Exam:
- Computer-Based Test (CBT)
- Duration:
- 3 hours (180 minutes)
- Total Questions:
- 150 questions
- Subjects & Number of Questions:
| Subject | Number of Questions |
|---|---|
| Physics | 40 |
| Chemistry | 40 |
| Mathematics/Biology (depending on course) | 45 |
| English Proficiency & Logical Reasoning | 25 |
- Marking Scheme:
- Correct Answer: +3 marks
- Incorrect Answer: –1 mark
- Unattempted Question: 0 marks
- Extra Questions Option:
- If a candidate completes all 150 questions before time, they can attempt extra 12 questions (4 from Physics, 4 from Chemistry, 4 from Mathematics/Biology).
- These are optional and cannot replace previous answers.
- Syllabus:
- Based on NCERT 11th & 12th standard syllabus of Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics/Biology.
- English Proficiency: grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension.
- Logical Reasoning: analytical reasoning, puzzles, patterns.
- Nature of Questions:
- Objective Type / Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
- Each question has 4 options, only one correct.
Physics Questions (Q1–40)
Q1. A particle moves with acceleration a=2t m/s². Its initial velocity is zero. What is the velocity at t = 3 s?
A. 3 m/s
B. 6 m/s
C. 9 m/s
D. 12 m/s
Q2. The unit of magnetic flux is:
A. Tesla
B. Weber
C. Gauss
D. Ampere
Q3. The frequency of a simple pendulum is doubled. Its time period becomes:
A. Half
B. Double
C. Four times
D. One-fourth
Q4. The work done in moving a charge 2 C through a potential difference of 5 V is:
A. 5 J
B. 10 J
C. 7.5 J
D. 2.5 J
Q5. A body of mass 2 kg is moving with velocity 5 m/s. Its kinetic energy is:
A. 10 J
B. 20 J
C. 25 J
D. 50 J
Q6. The angle of deviation of light in a prism is minimum when:
A. Angle of incidence = Angle of emergence
B. Angle of incidence > Angle of emergence
C. Angle of incidence < Angle of emergence
D. Any angle
Q7. The potential energy of a spring is doubled. The amplitude of oscillation:
A. Doubles
B. Halves
C. Increases by √2
D. Decreases by √2
Q8. The SI unit of electric field is:
A. V/m
B. N/C
C. Both A and B
D. Volt
Q9. The angle between velocity and acceleration in uniform circular motion is:
A. 0°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 180°
Q10. Light of wavelength 500 nm passes from air to glass (n = 1.5). Its wavelength in glass is:
A. 333 nm
B. 500 nm
C. 750 nm
D. 1000 nm
Q11. The escape velocity of Earth is approximately:
A. 5 km/s
B. 11 km/s
C. 8 km/s
D. 15 km/s
Q12. In an AC circuit with pure inductance, the current:
A. Leads voltage by 90°
B. Lags voltage by 90°
C. Is in phase with voltage
D. Lags by 45°
Q13. The work function of a metal is 4 eV. The threshold frequency is approximately:
A. 1 × 10¹⁴ Hz
B. 10¹⁵ Hz
C. 2 × 10¹⁴ Hz
D. 5 × 10¹⁴ Hz
Q14. A particle of mass m moves in a circle of radius r with speed v. Its centripetal acceleration is:
A. v² / r
B. v² r
C. vr²
D. r² / v
Q15. The SI unit of capacitance is:
A. Farad
B. Coulomb
C. Henry
D. Ohm
Q16. In Doppler effect, frequency observed increases when source:
A. Moves away from observer
B. Moves towards observer
C. Is stationary
D. Observer moves away
Q17. The angle of refraction is 30° when light enters from air to glass (n = 1.5). The angle of incidence is:
A. 45°
B. 30°
C. 60°
D. 90°
Q18. The magnetic moment of a current loop is:
A. I × A
B. I / A
C. I² × A
D. I × A²
Q19. A man jumps from 5 m height. Time to reach ground:
A. 1 s
B. 1.01 s
C. 1.5 s
D. 2 s
Q20. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s. Its wavelength for 680 Hz sound:
A. 0.5 m
B. 1 m
C. 2 m
D. 4 m
Q21. The SI unit of magnetic flux density:
A. Weber
B. Tesla
C. Gauss
D. Ampere
Q22. The unit of angular momentum is:
A. kg·m²/s²
B. kg·m²/s
C. N·m
D. J·s
Q23. A body slides down a frictionless incline of height h. Its speed at bottom:
A. √(2gh)
B. √(gh)
C. 2gh
D. gh
Q24. In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends on:
A. Frequency of light
B. Intensity of light
C. Both
D. None
Q25. The escape velocity does not depend on:
A. Mass of planet
B. Radius of planet
C. Mass of object
D. G (gravitational constant)
Q26. A concave lens always forms:
A. Real image
B. Virtual image
C. Both
D. Depends on object distance
Q27. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion of amplitude A. Maximum velocity:
A. ωA
B. A²ω
C. ω / A
D. ½ ωA
Q28. The force on a unit charge in an electric field:
A. E × q
B. E / q
C. E
D. None
Q29. The energy of a photon is given by:
A. E = hf
B. E = mc²
C. E = ½ mv²
D. E = h / f
Q30. The work done by centripetal force:
A. Maximum
B. Zero
C. Depends on mass
D. Depends on velocity
Q31. The time period of a spring-mass system:
A. 2π√(m/k)
B. 2π√(k/m)
C. √(m/k)
D. √(k/m)
Q32. The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. Its power:
A. 5 D
B. 10 D
C. 2.5 D
D. 1 D
Q33. The phenomenon of bending of light around edges:
A. Refraction
B. Diffraction
C. Dispersion
D. Reflection
Q34. The maximum height of a projectile:
A. v² sin²θ / 2g
B. v² cos²θ / 2g
C. v² sin2θ / g
D. v² / g
Q35. The electric field inside a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium is:
A. Zero
B. Maximum
C. Depends on shape
D. Constant nonzero
Q36. The SI unit of magnetic flux:
A. Tesla
B. Weber
C. Gauss
D. Ampere
Q37. The time period of a simple pendulum of length L:
A. 2π√(L/g)
B. √(L/g)
C. 2π√(g/L)
D. L/g
Q38. In an AC circuit with pure resistance, the current:
A. Leads voltage
B. Lags voltage
C. In phase
D. Zero
Q39. The de Broglie wavelength λ of a particle:
A. h / p
B. hp
C. h / E
D. √(h / p)
Q40. In resonance of LCR circuit, impedance is:
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. Zero
D. Infinity
Chemistry Questions (Q1–40)
Q1. Which of the following is a strong acid?
A. HCl
B. CH₃COOH
C. HF
D. H₂CO₃
Q2. The number of moles in 18 g of water (H₂O) is:
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Q3. The hybridization of carbon in CH₄ is:
A. sp
B. sp²
C. sp³
D. dsp²
Q4. The pH of 0.001 M HCl is approximately:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q5. Which of the following is amphoteric?
A. Al(OH)₃
B. NaOH
C. HCl
D. K₂O
Q6. The gas liberated when Na₂CO₃ reacts with HCl is:
A. O₂
B. CO₂
C. H₂
D. Cl₂
Q7. Which element has the highest electronegativity?
A. F
B. O
C. N
D. Cl
Q8. The oxidation number of S in H₂SO₄ is:
A. +2
B. +4
C. +6
D. +8
Q9. The molecular formula of glucose is:
A. CH₂O
B. C₆H₁₂O₆
C. C₆H₆
D. C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁
Q10. Which of the following is a transition element?
A. Na
B. Fe
C. Mg
D. Ca
Q11. The number of lone pairs on nitrogen in NH₃ is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Q12. The reaction Cu + 2AgNO₃ → Cu(NO₃)₂ + 2Ag is:
A. Redox
B. Acid-base
C. Precipitation
D. Decomposition
Q13. The main constituent of natural gas is:
A. Ethane
B. Methane
C. Propane
D. Butane
Q14. The solubility of a gas in liquid increases with:
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Volume
D. None
Q15. Which of the following is a polymer?
A. Ethanol
B. Polyethylene
C. Methane
D. Benzene
Q16. The IUPAC name of CH₃–CH₂–OH is:
A. Methanol
B. Ethanol
C. Propanol
D. Butanol
Q17. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
A. Glucose
B. Sucrose
C. Starch
D. Cellulose
Q18. Which of the following is an inert gas?
A. O₂
B. H₂
C. Ne
D. N₂
Q19. The bond angle in H₂O is approximately:
A. 90°
B. 104.5°
C. 120°
D. 180°
Q20. Which of the following is a strong base?
A. NaOH
B. NH₄OH
C. Al(OH)₃
D. CH₃COOH
Q21. The gas evolved in the reaction of Zn with dilute HCl is:
A. O₂
B. H₂
C. CO₂
D. Cl₂
Q22. Which of the following is a non-metal with metallic luster?
A. Sulfur
B. Phosphorus
C. Iodine
D. Oxygen
Q23. The number of sigma bonds in ethane (C₂H₆) is:
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Q24. Which of the following exhibits hydrogen bonding?
A. CH₄
B. H₂O
C. CO₂
D. O₂
Q25. The molecular mass of H₂SO₄ is:
A. 98 g/mol
B. 100 g/mol
C. 96 g/mol
D. 102 g/mol
Q26. Which acid is found in vinegar?
A. HCl
B. H₂SO₄
C. CH₃COOH
D. HNO₃
Q27. Which is a halogen?
A. O
B. Cl
C. N
D. H
Q28. The electronegativity of H is approximately:
A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 2.2
D. 3.0
Q29. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
A. N₂
B. O₂
C. CO₂
D. H₂
Q30. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?
A. Mercury
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Aluminum
Q31. The main product of combustion of methane is:
A. CO
B. CO₂ + H₂O
C. CH₄O
D. H₂
Q32. The most abundant element in the Earth’s crust is:
A. Silicon
B. Oxygen
C. Aluminum
D. Iron
Q33. The valency of Al in Al₂O₃ is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q34. Which of the following is a noble gas?
A. He
B. H
C. O
D. Cl
Q35. Which of the following is aromatic?
A. Benzene
B. Cyclohexane
C. Ethane
D. Propane
Q36. Which of the following is an ester?
A. CH₃COOH
B. CH₃COOCH₃
C. CH₄
D. CH₃OH
Q37. The major component of air is:
A. O₂
B. N₂
C. CO₂
D. H₂
Q38. Which of the following is a reducing agent?
A. KMnO₄
B. H₂
C. HNO₃
D. Cl₂
Q39. The pH of pure water at 25°C is:
A. 7
B. 0
C. 14
D. 1
Q40. The IUPAC name of CH₃–CH₃ is:
A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Propane
D. Butane
Mathematics Questions (Q1–45)
Q1. If x2−5x+6=0, then x = ?
A. 2, 3
B. 1, 6
C. –2, –3
D. 3, 4
Q2. The sum of first 20 natural numbers is:
A. 210
B. 200
C. 190
D. 220
Q3. If A = [1324], det(A) = ?
A. –2
B. 2
C. 1
D. –1
Q4. The derivative of x3 is:
A. 3x²
B. x²
C. 3x
D. x³
Q5. The integral ∫xdx = ?
A. x² / 2 + C
B. x² + C
C. 2x + C
D. 1/x + C
Q6. The roots of x2+4x+3=0 are:
A. –1, –3
B. 1, 3
C. –1, 3
D. 1, –3
Q7. The solution of 2x + 3 = 7 is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Q8. The sum of squares of first 5 natural numbers is:
A. 30
B. 35
C. 55
D. 50
Q9. The distance between points (1,2) and (4,6) is:
A. 5
B. √20
C. √18
D. 6
Q10. The equation of a line passing through origin with slope 2 is:
A. y = 2x
B. y = x + 2
C. y = x – 2
D. y = ½ x
Q11. If f(x) = x² + 2x, then f(3) = ?
A. 12
B. 15
C. 18
D. 9
Q12. The sum of first n odd numbers is:
A. n²
B. n(n + 1)
C. 2n²
D. n(n – 1)
Q13. The derivative of cos x is:
A. sin x
B. –sin x
C. cos x
D. –cos x
Q14. The integral ∫1/xdx = ?
A. ln|x| + C
B. x + C
C. 1/x + C
D. e^x + C
Q15. The slope of line 3x – 4y + 7 = 0 is:
A. 3/4
B. 4/3
C. –3/4
D. –4/3
Q16. The roots of x2+x–6=0 are:
A. 2, –3
B. 3, –2
C. 1, –6
D. –1, 6
Q17. The sum of first n natural numbers is:
A. n(n + 1)/2
B. n²
C. n(n – 1)/2
D. n³
Q18. The value of tan 45° is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. √3
D. √2
Q19. The solution of 3x – 7 = 2 is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q20. The solution of 2x + 3y = 6 and x – y = 1 is:
A. x = 1, y = 2
B. x = 2, y = 1
C. x = 3, y = 0
D. x = 0, y = 2
Q21. The derivative of ex is:
A. e^x
B. x
C. 1
D. 0
Q22. If arithmetic mean of 2 and 8 is A, geometric mean is G, then A × G = ?
A. 12
B. 16
C. 18
D. 20
Q23. The integral ∫2xdx = ?
A. x² + C
B. 2x² + C
C. x²/2 + C
D. 2 + C
Q24. The solution of x² – 9 = 0 is:
A. x = 3, –3
B. x = 9, –9
C. x = 0, 3
D. x = 1, –9
Q25. The sum of squares of first 3 natural numbers is:
A. 14
B. 12
C. 13
D. 11
Q26. The roots of x² – 4x + 4 = 0 are:
A. 2, 2
B. 4, 4
C. –2, –2
D. 1, 4
Q27. If x = 2 is a root of 2x² – kx + 4 = 0, then k = ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Q28. The value of cos 0° + sin 90° is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. √2
Q29. The roots of x² + 5x + 6 = 0 are:
A. –2, –3
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 6
D. –1, –6
Q30. The distance between points (–1, –2) and (3, 2) is:
A. 6
B. √20
C. √18
D. 8
Q31. The sum of first 10 even numbers is:
A. 100
B. 110
C. 120
D. 90
Q32. The solution of x² – x – 6 = 0 is:
A. 3, –2
B. 2, –3
C. 1, 6
D. –1, 6
Q33. If f(x) = x² + 1, f(3) = ?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Q34. The sum of first 50 natural numbers is:
A. 1275
B. 1250
C. 1300
D. 1350
Q35. The derivative of x² + 3x is:
A. 2x + 3
B. 2x
C. 3x²
D. x²
Q36. The integral of x² dx is:
A. x³ / 3 + C
B. x² + C
C. 2x + C
D. 3x² + C
Q37. The slope of line y = 3x + 2 is:
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. –3
Q38. The roots of x² – 5x + 6 = 0 are:
A. 2, 3
B. –2, –3
C. 1, 6
D. 3, 4
Q39. The solution of x² – 1 = 0 is:
A. 1, –1
B. 1, 1
C. –1, –1
D. 0, 1
Q40. The derivative of sin x is:
A. cos x
B. –cos x
C. sin x
D. –sin x
Q41. The integral ∫cosxdx = ?
A. sin x + C
B. –sin x + C
C. cos x + C
D. –cos x + C
Q42. The solution of 5x – 10 = 0 is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q43. The roots of x² – 2x – 3 = 0 are:
A. 3, –1
B. 1, –3
C. 2, –3
D. –2, 3
Q44. The sum of first n odd numbers is:
A. n²
B. n(n + 1)
C. 2n²
D. n(n – 1)
Q45. The derivative of e^(2x) is:
A. 2e^(2x)
B. e^(2x)
C. 2x e^(2x)
D. e^(x)
BITSAT Mock Test 2026 – Answer Key
Physics (Q1–40)
| Q.No | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1 | C |
| 2 | B |
| 3 | A |
| 4 | B |
| 5 | C |
| 6 | A |
| 7 | C |
| 8 | C |
| 9 | C |
| 10 | A |
| 11 | B |
| 12 | A |
| 13 | D |
| 14 | A |
| 15 | A |
| 16 | B |
| 17 | A |
| 18 | A |
| 19 | B |
| 20 | C |
| 21 | B |
| 22 | B |
| 23 | A |
| 24 | A |
| 25 | C |
| 26 | B |
| 27 | A |
| 28 | C |
| 29 | A |
| 30 | B |
| 31 | A |
| 32 | C |
| 33 | B |
| 34 | A |
| 35 | A |
| 36 | B |
| 37 | A |
| 38 | C |
| 39 | A |
| 40 | B |
Chemistry (Q1–40)
| Q.No | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1 | A |
| 2 | B |
| 3 | C |
| 4 | C |
| 5 | A |
| 6 | B |
| 7 | A |
| 8 | C |
| 9 | B |
| 10 | B |
| 11 | B |
| 12 | A |
| 13 | B |
| 14 | B |
| 15 | B |
| 16 | B |
| 17 | A |
| 18 | C |
| 19 | B |
| 20 | A |
| 21 | B |
| 22 | C |
| 23 | D |
| 24 | B |
| 25 | A |
| 26 | C |
| 27 | B |
| 28 | C |
| 29 | C |
| 30 | A |
| 31 | B |
| 32 | A |
| 33 | C |
| 34 | A |
| 35 | A |
| 36 | B |
| 37 | B |
| 38 | B |
| 39 | A |
| 40 | B |
Mathematics (Q1–45)
| Q.No | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1 | A |
| 2 | A |
| 3 | A |
| 4 | A |
| 5 | A |
| 6 | A |
| 7 | A |
| 8 | C |
| 9 | B |
| 10 | A |
| 11 | B |
| 12 | A |
| 13 | B |
| 14 | A |
| 15 | A |
| 16 | A |
| 17 | A |
| 18 | B |
| 19 | B |
| 20 | B |
| 21 | A |
| 22 | B |
| 23 | A |
| 24 | A |
| 25 | A |
| 26 | A |
| 27 | C |
| 28 | B |
| 29 | A |
| 30 | B |
| 31 | A |
| 32 | B |
| 33 | B |
| 34 | A |
| 35 | A |
| 36 | A |
| 37 | A |
| 38 | A |
| 39 | A |
| 40 | A |
| 41 | A |
| 42 | B |
| 43 | A |
| 44 | A |
| 45 | A |
Disclaimer:
This mock test and answer key is for practice and educational purposes only. It is not official and should be used to evaluate your preparation.