CG TET Paper I Mock Test

CG TET – Paper I Mock Test (Primary Stage)

Total Questions: 150
Duration: 2.5 hours
Marking: 1 mark per question, no negative marking

Sections:

  1. Child Development & Pedagogy – 30 Qs
  2. Language I (Hindi / Chhattisgarhi) – 30 Qs
  3. Language II (English) – 30 Qs
  4. Mathematics – 30 Qs
  5. Environmental Studies – 30 Qs

Section A: Child Development & Pedagogy (Q1–30)

Q1. Piaget’s stage of concrete operations generally occurs at what age?
A. 2–7 years
B. 7–11 years
C. 12–15 years
D. 15–18 years

Q2. Vygotsky’s concept of Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) emphasizes:
A. Learning independently
B. Learning with guidance
C. Learning by trial and error
D. Learning through assessment

Q3. Which of the following is a cognitive domain activity?
A. Painting
B. Memorizing multiplication tables
C. Physical exercise
D. Group play

Q4. According to Erikson, the stage “Industry vs. Inferiority” corresponds to:
A. Infancy
B. Early childhood
C. Middle childhood
D. Adolescence

Q5. Scaffolding in teaching means:
A. Letting students struggle
B. Providing support until independence
C. Giving complete solutions
D. Grading students’ work

Q6. Multiple Intelligences Theory was proposed by:
A. Piaget
B. Gardner
C. Skinner
D. Vygotsky

Q7. A child develops conservation of number at which stage?
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational

Q8. Play that involves rules, like board games, is classified as:
A. Functional play
B. Constructive play
C. Games with rules
D. Symbolic play

Q9. Which is an effective assessment technique for primary children?
A. Oral questioning
B. Multiple-choice tests only
C. Only written tests
D. Standardized exams

Q10. Inclusive education primarily promotes:
A. Segregation
B. Individualized learning
C. Group competition
D. Uniform teaching methods

Q11. The process of internalizing cultural norms is called:
A. Socialization
B. Assimilation
C. Accommodation
D. Modelling

Q12. A teacher notices a child struggling with reading. Best first step:
A. Assign extra homework
B. Identify learning style & need
C. Ignore the behavior
D. Give group instruction

Q13. Bloom’s taxonomy categorizes learning objectives into:
A. Knowledge, comprehension, application
B. Seeing, hearing, touching
C. Grammar, vocabulary, reading
D. Play, work, leisure

Q14. Constructivist teaching approach encourages:
A. Memorization
B. Teacher-centered instruction
C. Active learning & exploration
D. Standardized testing

Q15. Peer learning is most effective when:
A. Students of similar ability collaborate
B. Only top students teach
C. Teacher lectures
D. Students work individually

Q16. Self-concept development in children affects:
A. Social behavior
B. Learning attitude
C. Emotional adjustment
D. All of the above

Q17. Moral development according to Kohlberg begins at:
A. Pre-conventional stage
B. Conventional stage
C. Post-conventional stage
D. None of the above

Q18. Which is an example of Experiential learning?
A. Reading a textbook
B. Watching a teacher
C. Hands-on science experiment
D. Copying notes

Q19. Attention span in primary children is typically:
A. 2–3 minutes
B. 10–15 minutes
C. 30–40 minutes
D. 1 hour

Q20. Motivational strategies for young learners include:
A. Rewards & praise
B. Threats & punishment
C. Ignoring mistakes
D. Long lectures

Q21. Language acquisition in children is influenced most by:
A. Genetics only
B. Environment & interaction
C. School exams
D. Physical health only

Q22. Emotional intelligence in primary children helps in:
A. Solving math problems
B. Managing relationships & emotions
C. Memorizing facts
D. Sports performance only

Q23. Which of the following is an assessment for learning?
A. Formative assessment
B. Summative assessment
C. Final exam
D. Standardized test

Q24. A child can learn better in small groups because:
A. Teacher attention is higher
B. Peer interaction supports learning
C. Tasks can be differentiated
D. All of the above

Q25. Behaviorist approach in classroom emphasizes:
A. Rewards & consequences
B. Child-centered exploration
C. Social interaction
D. Emotional support

Q26. A child-centered pedagogy focuses on:
A. Curriculum coverage
B. Student interests & needs
C. Teacher’s convenience
D. Strict discipline

Q27. Which is a fine motor skill activity?
A. Running
B. Drawing & coloring
C. Jumping
D. Climbing

Q28. Reflective teaching means:
A. Repeating lessons
B. Thinking about & improving teaching
C. Following a fixed syllabus
D. Grading students only

Q29. Constructive feedback should be:
A. Immediate & specific
B. Delayed & general
C. Only written
D. Only verbal

Q30. Collaborative learning promotes:
A. Competition
B. Cooperation
C. Isolation
D. Memorization


CG TET – Paper I Mock Test

Section B: Language I (Hindi / Chhattisgarhi)
Questions: Q31–60


Q31. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा संधि विच्छेद सही है?
“राजपुरुष”
A. राज + पुरुष
B. राजा + पुरष
C. राज + पुरष
D. रा + जपुरुष


Q32. “जल्दी” का पर्यायवाची शब्द है:
A. शीघ्र
B. धीमे
C. स्थिर
D. विलम्ब


Q33. “सत्य” का विपरीतार्थक शब्द है:
A. झूठ
B. धर्म
C. ईमानदारी
D. विश्वास


Q34. निम्नलिखित वाक्य में सही लिंग का प्रयोग कौन-सा है?
“लड़का स्कूल गया।”
A. सही
B. गलत
C. अधूरा
D. संदिग्ध


Q35. “ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़ना” में कौन-सा अवलोकन कौशल दिखता है?
A. सुनना
B. समझना
C. लिखना
D. बोलना


Q36. “रवि ने किताब पढ़ी।” में कृदंत शब्द कौन-सा है?
A. रवि
B. किताब
C. पढ़ी
D. ने


Q37. “राम खेल रहा है।” में वर्तमान काल कौन-सा है?
A. भूतकाल
B. वर्तमान काल
C. भविष्यत काल
D. अनिश्चित काल


Q38. “मित्रता अमूल्य है।” में संज्ञा कौन-सी है?
A. मित्रता
B. अमूल्य
C. है
D. कोई नहीं


Q39. “छोटे बच्चों को कहानी सुनाई जाती है।” में क्रिया कौन-सी है?
A. बच्चों
B. कहानी
C. सुनाई जाती है
D. छोटी


Q40. निम्नलिखित में से समानार्थक शब्दों का जोड़ा सही है?
A. दुःख – पीड़ा
B. घर – सड़क
C. सूरज – चाँद
D. नदी – पहाड़


Q41. “यदि आप मेहनत करेंगे, तो सफलता मिलेगी।” में कौन-सा संधि प्रयोग सही है?
A. मेहनत + करेंगे
B. सफल + ता
C. मिले + गी
D. कोई नहीं


Q42. “सुंदर फूल खिल रहे हैं।” में विशेषण कौन-सा है?
A. सुंदर
B. फूल
C. खिल
D. रहे


Q43. “सीता ने आम खाया।” में कर्त्ता कौन-सा है?
A. आम
B. खाया
C. सीता
D. ने


Q44. “सिंह बहुत ताकतवर है।” में संज्ञा का भेद कौन-सा है?
A. व्यक्तिवाचक
B. जातिवाचक
C. भाववाचक
D. द्रव्यवाचक


Q45. “पेड़ के नीचे बच्चे खेल रहे हैं।” में वचन कौन-सा है?
A. एकवचन
B. बहुवचन
C. मिश्र वचन
D. कोई नहीं


Q46. “सफाई अभियान में सभी ने भाग लिया।” में सर्वनाम कौन-सा है?
A. सफाई
B. सभी
C. भाग
D. अभियान


Q47. “मित्रता अमूल्य है।” में भाववाचक संज्ञा कौन-सी है?
A. मित्रता
B. अमूल्य
C. है
D. कोई नहीं


Q48. “राम और श्याम बाजार गए।” में समुच्चय बोधक शब्द कौन-सा है?
A. और
B. गए
C. राम
D. श्याम


Q49. “यह पुस्तक अच्छी है।” में विशेषण और संज्ञा पहचानें।
A. पुस्तक – संज्ञा, अच्छी – विशेषण
B. पुस्तक – विशेषण, अच्छी – संज्ञा
C. पुस्तक – क्रिया, अच्छी – संज्ञा
D. कोई नहीं


Q50. “वह तेज दौड़ता है।” में क्रिया कौन-सी है?
A. वह
B. तेज
C. दौड़ता
D. है


Q51. “सुबह-सुबह सूरज उगा।” में संधि विच्छेद क्या है?
A. सुबह + सुबह
B. सूरज + उगा
C. सूर + ज उगा
D. कोई नहीं


Q52. “मैंने किताब पढ़ी।” में कर्त्ता और कर्म क्रमशः कौन-से हैं?
A. मैंने – कर्त्ता, किताब – कर्म
B. किताब – कर्त्ता, मैंने – कर्म
C. मैंने – कर्म, किताब – कर्त्ता
D. कोई नहीं


Q53. “संगीत सुनना अच्छा लगता है।” में संज्ञा कौन-सी है?
A. संगीत
B. सुनना
C. अच्छा
D. लगता


Q54. “वह धीरे-धीरे दौड़ा।” में क्रिया विशेषण कौन-सा है?
A. वह
B. धीरे-धीरे
C. दौड़ा
D. कोई नहीं


Q55. “राम ने मेला देखा।” में कर्म कौन-सा है?
A. राम
B. मेला
C. देखा
D. ने


Q56. “सच्चाई हमेशा जीतती है।” में भाववाचक संज्ञा कौन-सी है?
A. सच्चाई
B. हमेशा
C. जीतती
D. है


Q57. “मेरे मित्र अच्छे हैं।” में सर्वनाम कौन-सा है?
A. मेरे
B. मित्र
C. अच्छे
D. हैं


Q58. “बारिश होने लगी।” में क्रिया कौन-सी है?
A. बारिश
B. होने
C. लगी
D. कोई नहीं


Q59. “सूरज पूर्व से निकलता है।” में संधि विच्छेद क्या है?
A. सूरज + पूर्व
B. पूर्व + से
C. निकल + ता
D. कोई नहीं


Q60. “माँ ने खाना बनाया।” में कर्त्ता और क्रिया कौन-से हैं?
A. माँ – कर्त्ता, बनाया – क्रिया
B. खाना – कर्त्ता, बनाया – क्रिया
C. माँ – कर्त्ता, खाना – क्रिया
D. कोई नहीं


CG TET – Paper I Mock Test

Section C: Language II (English)
Questions: Q61–90


Vocabulary & Synonyms / Antonyms (Q61–70)

Q61. Select the synonym of “Abundant”:
A. Scarce
B. Plentiful
C. Tiny
D. Insufficient

Q62. Select the antonym of “Benevolent”:
A. Kind
B. Cruel
C. Generous
D. Charitable

Q63. Choose the correct meaning of “Exquisite”:
A. Ordinary
B. Beautifully made
C. Ugly
D. Rough

Q64. Select the word closest in meaning to “Reluctant”:
A. Eager
B. Hesitant
C. Willing
D. Cheerful

Q65. Find the antonym of “Vigorous”:
A. Energetic
B. Weak
C. Strong
D. Active

Q66. Choose the word which means “to criticize severely”:
A. Praise
B. Condemn
C. Approve
D. Encourage

Q67. Select the synonym of “Diligent”:
A. Lazy
B. Hardworking
C. Careless
D. Negligent

Q68. Find the antonym of “Transparent”:
A. Clear
B. Opaque
C. Translucent
D. Lucid

Q69. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Obsolete”:
A. Modern
B. Outdated
C. Useful
D. Functional

Q70. Select the synonym of “Intricate”:
A. Simple
B. Complicated
C. Plain
D. Easy


Grammar & Sentence Correction (Q71–80)

Q71. Identify the correct sentence:
A. He don’t like apples.
B. He doesn’t like apples.
C. He not likes apples.
D. He doesn’t likes apple.

Q72. Fill in the blank: “She ____ to school every day.”
A. go
B. goes
C. going
D. gone

Q73. Choose the correct passive form:
“Ravi writes a letter.”
A. A letter is written by Ravi.
B. A letter written by Ravi.
C. A letter is wrote by Ravi.
D. A letter was writing by Ravi.

Q74. Identify the error: “She can sings very well.”
A. She
B. can
C. sings
D. very well

Q75. Choose correct question form:
“They are playing football.”
A. Are they playing football?
B. Do they are playing football?
C. Is they playing football?
D. They are playing football?

Q76. Fill in the blank: “I have ____ my homework.”
A. do
B. did
C. done
D. doing

Q77. Identify the correct sentence:
A. I have seen him yesterday.
B. I saw him yesterday.
C. I see him yesterday.
D. I have saw him yesterday.

Q78. Fill in the blank with preposition: “She is good ___ singing.”
A. on
B. at
C. in
D. for

Q79. Choose the correct tense: “By next year, I ____ my degree.”
A. complete
B. will complete
C. will have completed
D. completed

Q80. Identify the correct sentence:
A. There is many students in the class.
B. There are many students in the class.
C. There be many students in the class.
D. There is much students in the class.


Reading Comprehension (Q81–90)

Passage:
Children are naturally curious. They learn best when they are actively engaged. Play-based learning helps children develop social, emotional, and cognitive skills. Teachers should provide opportunities for hands-on activities and encourage exploration.

Q81. According to the passage, children learn best when:
A. They are tested frequently
B. They are actively engaged
C. They memorize information
D. They watch lectures

Q82. Play-based learning helps children develop:
A. Only cognitive skills
B. Only social skills
C. Only emotional skills
D. Social, emotional, and cognitive skills

Q83. Teachers should provide opportunities for:
A. Hands-on activities
B. Lectures only
C. Memorization
D. Punishment

Q84. The passage mainly emphasizes:
A. Teacher-centered learning
B. Play-based learning
C. Examinations
D. Written assignments

Q85. “Encourage exploration” means:
A. Punish mistakes
B. Support trying new things
C. Focus on rote learning
D. Avoid new activities

Q86. A key benefit of active engagement is:
A. Better memorization
B. Improved curiosity & learning
C. Faster homework completion
D. Higher discipline

Q87. Which is NOT mentioned as a skill developed by play?
A. Emotional
B. Social
C. Cognitive
D. Athletic

Q88. Teachers’ role in play-based learning is:
A. To instruct constantly
B. To guide and support
C. To test frequently
D. To evaluate strictly

Q89. Children’s natural curiosity is:
A. A barrier to learning
B. A motivator for learning
C. Unimportant
D. Discouraged

Q90. The passage implies that learning through play is:
A. Ineffective
B. Engaging and beneficial
C. Only for fun
D. Strictly academic


Arithmetic & Number System (Q91–100)

Q91. Find the LCM of 12, 18 and 24.
A. 72
B. 144
C. 36
D. 48

Q92. If the HCF of two numbers is 12 and their product is 1728, find their LCM.
A. 144
B. 1728
C. 12
D. 288

Q93. The sum of the first 15 odd numbers is:
A. 225
B. 210
C. 120
D. 180

Q94. A number is divisible by 3 and 4. Which of the following must be divisible by 12?
A. The number itself
B. Twice the number
C. Half the number
D. None of these

Q95. If 25% of a number is 60, the number is:
A. 240
B. 200
C. 150
D. 180

Q96. The HCF of 48 and 72 is:
A. 12
B. 24
C. 36
D. 48

Q97. Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
A. 40
B. 42
C. 50
D. 56

Q98. A student scored 60, 70, 80, 90, 100 marks in 5 tests. Find the average.
A. 75
B. 80
C. 85
D. 90

Q99. Simplify: (25 × 36) ÷ 9 + 18
A. 120
B. 118
C. 108
D. 110

Q100. Which of the following numbers is a perfect square?
A. 72
B. 81
C. 88
D. 90


Fractions, Decimals & Percentages (Q101–110)

Q101. Simplify: 3/4 + 5/6
A. 19/12
B. 10/10
C. 17/12
D. 11/12

Q102. Subtract: 7.5 – 3.25
A. 4.25
B. 4.15
C. 4.50
D. 4.20

Q103. What is 25% of 480?
A. 120
B. 100
C. 150
D. 110

Q104. Convert 0.875 into fraction.
A. 7/8
B. 8/9
C. 3/4
D. 5/8

Q105. A shopkeeper gives 10% discount on a ₹500 item. Selling price = ?
A. ₹450
B. ₹400
C. ₹420
D. ₹480

Q106. Express 3/8 as a percentage.
A. 37.5%
B. 38%
C. 35%
D. 40%

Q107. Find the fraction equivalent of 62.5%.
A. 5/8
B. 3/4
C. 7/8
D. 1/2

Q108. Divide 3/4 ÷ 1/2
A. 1/2
B. 1 1/2
C. 3/8
D. 2

Q109. Simplify: 0.6 × 0.25
A. 0.15
B. 0.25
C. 0.12
D. 0.16

Q110. If a student scored 18 out of 25, the percentage = ?
A. 72%
B. 70%
C. 68%
D. 75%


Algebra & Simple Equations (Q111–115)

Q111. Solve for x: 2x + 5 = 17
A. 6
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8

Q112. Solve: 3x – 4 = 11
A. 5
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7

Q113. Solve: 5x + 10 = 35
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

Q114. Solve: 7x – 14 = 0
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. -2

Q115. Solve: x/4 + 3 = 10
A. 24
B. 28
C. 26
D. 30


Geometry & Measurement (Q116–120)

Q116. A rectangle has length = 10 cm, breadth = 6 cm. Area = ?
A. 60 cm²
B. 16 cm²
C. 32 cm²
D. 50 cm²

Q117. Circumference of a circle with radius 7 cm (π = 22/7) = ?
A. 44 cm
B. 42 cm
C. 45 cm
D. 48 cm

Q118. Perimeter of a square whose side = 9 m = ?
A. 36 m
B. 27 m
C. 18 m
D. 45 m

Q119. A cube has side 5 cm. Volume = ?
A. 125 cm³
B. 150 cm³
C. 100 cm³
D. 120 cm³

Q120. A triangle has base 8 cm, height 5 cm. Area = ?
A. 20 cm²
B. 40 cm²
C. 30 cm²
D. 25 cm²

Science & Nature (Q121–130)

Q121. The main source of energy for the Earth is:
A. Moon
B. Sun
C. Stars
D. Earth’s core

Q122. Which gas is essential for respiration in humans?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen

Q123. Water exists in which of the following states in nature?
A. Solid, liquid, gas
B. Solid only
C. Liquid only
D. Gas only

Q124. Which of the following plants give us oxygen?
A. Rose
B. Grass
C. Trees
D. All of the above

Q125. Which part of plant conducts water?
A. Root
B. Stem
C. Leaf
D. Flower

Q126. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
A. Coal
B. Solar energy
C. Petroleum
D. Natural gas

Q127. Which animal is a herbivore?
A. Lion
B. Cow
C. Tiger
D. Fox

Q128. The layer of air closest to the Earth is called:
A. Stratosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Ionosphere

Q129. Which of the following causes soil erosion?
A. Wind
B. Water
C. Deforestation
D. All of the above

Q130. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
A. Venus
B. Mars
C. Jupiter
D. Mercury


Human Body & Health (Q131–140)

Q131. The largest organ of the human body is:
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Skin
D. Lungs

Q132. Which part of the body pumps blood?
A. Brain
B. Lungs
C. Heart
D. Kidney

Q133. Vaccination helps in:
A. Curing diseases
B. Preventing diseases
C. Increasing height
D. Improving eyesight

Q134. Which nutrient is needed for strong bones?
A. Protein
B. Calcium
C. Iron
D. Carbohydrate

Q135. Clean drinking water prevents:
A. Typhoid
B. Flu
C. Cough
D. Headache

Q136. Proper handwashing with soap is an example of:
A. Hygiene
B. Exercise
C. Nutrition
D. Immunity

Q137. The main organ for digestion is:
A. Heart
B. Stomach
C. Kidney
D. Lungs

Q138. Which sense organ detects sound?
A. Nose
B. Ear
C. Tongue
D. Eye

Q139. Which is a balanced diet component?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Vitamins & Minerals
D. All of the above

Q140. First aid for minor cuts includes:
A. Leave it open
B. Wash and bandage
C. Apply oil
D. Ignore


Social Studies & Environment Awareness (Q141–150)

Q141. The main source of water on Earth is:
A. Rivers & lakes
B. Oceans
C. Groundwater
D. All of the above

Q142. Which of the following is a pollutant?
A. Smoke
B. Dust
C. Plastic waste
D. All of the above

Q143. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle is related to:
A. Energy conservation
B. Waste management
C. Pollution
D. Water conservation

Q144. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
A. Wind energy
B. Solar energy
C. Coal
D. Water

Q145. Community helpers include:
A. Teacher
B. Doctor
C. Firefighter
D. All of the above

Q146. The capital of Chhattisgarh is:
A. Raipur
B. Bilaspur
C. Durg
D. Raigarh

Q147. Democracy means:
A. Rule by king
B. Rule by the people
C. Rule by army
D. Rule by a few

Q148. Which of the following saves electricity?
A. Switching off lights when not needed
B. Keeping appliances on
C. Using candles unnecessarily
D. Ignoring leakage

Q149. Importance of trees includes:
A. Provide oxygen
B. Prevent soil erosion
C. Provide fruits & timber
D. All of the above

Q150. Traffic rules ensure:
A. Safety on roads
B. Punishment only
C. Entertainment
D. None of the above

CG TET Paper I Mock Test – Answer Key (Q1–150)


Section A: Child Development & Pedagogy (Q1–30)

  1. B – 7–11 years
  2. B – Learning with guidance
  3. B – Memorizing multiplication tables
  4. C – Middle childhood
  5. B – Providing support until independence
  6. B – Gardner
  7. C – Concrete operational
  8. C – Games with rules
  9. A – Oral questioning
  10. B – Individualized learning
  11. A – Socialization
  12. B – Identify learning style & need
  13. A – Knowledge, comprehension, application
  14. C – Active learning & exploration
  15. A – Students of similar ability collaborate
  16. D – All of the above
  17. A – Pre-conventional stage
  18. C – Hands-on science experiment
  19. B – 10–15 minutes
  20. A – Rewards & praise
  21. B – Environment & interaction
  22. B – Managing relationships & emotions
  23. A – Formative assessment
  24. D – All of the above
  25. A – Rewards & consequences
  26. B – Student interests & needs
  27. B – Drawing & coloring
  28. B – Thinking about & improving teaching
  29. A – Immediate & specific
  30. B – Cooperation

Section B: Language I (Hindi / Chhattisgarhi) (Q31–60)

  1. A – राज + पुरुष
  2. A – शीघ्र
  3. A – झूठ
  4. A – सही
  5. B – समझना
  6. C – पढ़ी
  7. B – वर्तमान काल
  8. A – मित्रता
  9. C – सुनाई जाती है
  10. A – दुःख – पीड़ा
  11. D – कोई नहीं
  12. A – सुंदर
  13. C – सीता
  14. A – व्यक्तिवाचक
  15. B – बहुवचन
  16. B – सभी
  17. A – मित्रता
  18. A – और
  19. A – पुस्तक – संज्ञा, अच्छी – विशेषण
  20. C – दौड़ता
  21. A – सुबह + सुबह
  22. A – मैंने – कर्त्ता, किताब – कर्म
  23. A – संगीत
  24. B – धीरे-धीरे
  25. B – मेला
  26. A – सच्चाई
  27. A – मेरे
  28. C – लगी
  29. B – पूर्व + से
  30. A – माँ – कर्त्ता, बनाया – क्रिया

Section C: Language II (English) (Q61–90)

  1. B – Plentiful
  2. B – Cruel
  3. B – Beautifully made
  4. B – Hesitant
  5. B – Weak
  6. B – Condemn
  7. B – Hardworking
  8. B – Opaque
  9. B – Outdated
  10. B – Complicated
  11. B – He doesn’t like apples.
  12. B – goes
  13. A – A letter is written by Ravi.
  14. C – sings
  15. A – Are they playing football?
  16. C – done
  17. B – I saw him yesterday.
  18. B – at
  19. C – will have completed
  20. B – There are many students in the class.
  21. B – They are actively engaged
  22. D – Social, emotional, and cognitive skills
  23. A – Hands-on activities
  24. B – Play-based learning
  25. B – Support trying new things
  26. B – Improved curiosity & learning
  27. D – Athletic
  28. B – To guide and support
  29. B – A motivator for learning
  30. B – Engaging and beneficial

Section D: Mathematics (Q91–120)

  1. A – 72
  2. B – 1728
  3. A – 225
  4. A – The number itself
  5. A – 240
  6. B – 24
  7. B – 42
  8. B – 80
  9. A – 118
  10. B – 81
  11. A – 19/12
  12. A – 4.25
  13. A – 120
  14. A – 7/8
  15. A – ₹450
  16. A – 37.5%
  17. A – 5/8
  18. B – 3/2
  19. A – 0.15
  20. A – 72%
  21. A – 6
  22. A – 5
  23. A – 5
  24. A – 2
  25. A – 28
  26. A – 60 cm²
  27. A – 44 cm
  28. A – 36 m
  29. A – 125 cm³
  30. A – 20 cm²

Section E: Environmental Studies (EVS) (Q121–150)

  1. D – All of the above
  2. D – All of the above
  3. B – Waste management
  4. C – Coal
  5. B – Stem
  6. B – Solar energy
  7. B – Cow
  8. B – Troposphere
  9. D – All of the above
  10. B – Mars
  11. C – Skin
  12. C – Heart
  13. B – Preventing diseases
  14. B – Calcium
  15. A – Typhoid
  16. A – Hygiene
  17. B – Stomach
  18. B – Ear
  19. D – All of the above
  20. B – Wash and bandage
  21. D – All of the above
  22. D – All of the above
  23. B – Waste management
  24. C – Coal
  25. D – All of the above
  26. A – Raipur
  27. B – Rule by the people
  28. A – Switching off lights when not needed
  29. D – All of the above
  30. A – Safety on roads