CG TET – Paper II Mock Test (Upper Primary, Classes VI–VIII)
Total Questions: 150
Sections:
- Child Development & Pedagogy – Q1–30
- Language I (Hindi / Chhattisgarhi) – Q31–60
- Language II (English) – Q61–90
- Mathematics & Science (or Social Science) – Q91–120
- Environmental Studies / General Awareness – Q121–150
Section A: Child Development & Pedagogy (Q1–30)
Q1. According to Piaget, adolescents mainly operate at which stage of cognitive development?
A. Sensorimotor
B. Pre-operational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
Q2. Vygotsky emphasized the role of:
A. Genetics only
B. Environment only
C. Social interaction in learning
D. Independent memorization
Q3. Which of the following is an example of constructivist learning?
A. Memorizing formulas
B. Solving real-life math problems in groups
C. Copying notes
D. Listening to a lecture only
Q4. Emotional intelligence involves:
A. Recognizing and managing emotions
B. Memorizing facts
C. Completing worksheets quickly
D. Physical strength
Q5. Formative assessment is used to:
A. Assign final grades
B. Improve ongoing learning
C. Punish weak students
D. None of the above
Q6. Erikson’s stage of adolescence primarily focuses on:
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Identity vs. Role Confusion
C. Autonomy vs. Shame
D. Initiative vs. Guilt
Q7. Multiple intelligence theory was proposed by:
A. Piaget
B. Skinner
C. Gardner
D. Vygotsky
Q8. The zone of proximal development (ZPD) refers to:
A. Tasks a child can do alone
B. Tasks beyond reach even with help
C. Tasks a child can do with guidance
D. Tasks done incorrectly
Q9. Bloom’s taxonomy includes:
A. Remember, Understand, Apply
B. Sleep, Eat, Repeat
C. Listen, Speak, Draw
D. Read, Copy, Recite
Q10. Which of the following promotes inclusive education?
A. Grouping children by ability only
B. Encouraging participation of all learners
C. Segregating slow learners
D. Ignoring differently-abled students
Q11–Q20 (Conceptual / Application-based):
Q11. Peer learning is most effective because:
A. Teachers are not needed
B. Students learn from peers with similar understanding
C. It is faster
D. It requires no planning
Q12. Which assessment technique encourages self-reflection?
A. Multiple-choice test
B. Portfolio assessment
C. Oral questioning
D. Timed quiz
Q13. Motivation in adolescent learners is best enhanced by:
A. Rewards and punishments only
B. Relevance of content to real-life
C. Memorization drills
D. Lectures only
Q14. Social-emotional learning helps students to:
A. Solve equations faster
B. Recognize and manage emotions
C. Memorize history dates
D. None of the above
Q15. Which method promotes critical thinking?
A. Rote learning
B. Open-ended problem-solving
C. Copying examples
D. Listening silently
Q16. Scaffolding means:
A. Providing support gradually removed as competence increases
B. Teaching only advanced students
C. Providing all answers upfront
D. Ignoring slow learners
Q17. Adolescent learners often face:
A. Cognitive stagnation
B. Identity crises
C. Motor development issues only
D. None of the above
Q18. Metacognition refers to:
A. Thinking about one’s own thinking
B. Memorizing formulas
C. Physical exercise
D. Reciting facts
Q19. Effective classroom management ensures:
A. Discipline only
B. Learning opportunities for all
C. Silent classrooms
D. Strict punishment
Q20. Differentiated instruction involves:
A. Same material for all students
B. Tailoring instruction to learners’ needs
C. Ignoring weak learners
D. Using only textbooks
Q21–Q30 (High-Difficulty / Scenario-Based):
Q21. A student is shy and avoids class participation. Best teacher strategy:
A. Ignore the student
B. Encourage small group activities
C. Punish for silence
D. Ask parents to scold
Q22. A lesson plan must include:
A. Learning objectives, teaching methods, assessment strategies
B. Only objectives
C. Only teaching material
D. Only evaluation
Q23. Which of the following is a formative assessment technique?
A. Final exam
B. Observation & feedback
C. Board exam
D. None of the above
Q24. How can teachers encourage collaborative learning?
A. Group projects & discussions
B. Individual tests only
C. Lectures only
D. Assigning homework
Q25. A student consistently fails in math but excels in language. Best approach:
A. Focus on strengths, provide extra support in math
B. Ignore weaknesses
C. Punish the student
D. Make them memorize formulas
Q26. Constructivist classrooms emphasize:
A. Passive listening
B. Active participation & problem-solving
C. Memorization
D. Teacher-only explanation
Q27. A teacher notices bullying in class. First step:
A. Punish immediately
B. Observe & counsel students
C. Ignore
D. Ask parents to handle
Q28. Which activity encourages creativity?
A. Art & craft
B. Copying notes
C. Memorization
D. Lectures
Q29. How can technology enhance learning?
A. Interactive learning tools
B. Videos & simulations
C. Online quizzes
D. All of the above
Q30. Critical thinking in students is best developed through:
A. Problem-solving & reasoning activities
B. Memorizing facts
C. Listening silently
D. Copying notes
CG TET – Paper II Mock Test
Section B: Language I – Hindi & Chhattisgarhi (Q31–60)
Part 1: Hindi (Q31–45)
Q31. निम्नलिखित में से समानार्थी शब्द चुनें:
“प्रसन्न”
A. दुखी
B. खुश
C. क्रोधित
D. भयभीत
Q32. वाक्य में क्रिया पहचानें:
“राम बाजार गया।”
A. राम
B. गया
C. बाजार
D. कोई नहीं
Q33. “मैंने पुस्तक पढ़ी।” में कर्त्ता कौन है?
A. मैंने
B. पुस्तक
C. पढ़ी
D. कोई नहीं
Q34. निम्नलिखित में से वाच्य बदलें:
“राम ने सीता को फूल दिया।”
A. फूल राम को दिया
B. फूल सीता को दिया गया
C. फूल दिया गया राम द्वारा
D. कोई नहीं
Q35. “सूर्य उग रहा है।” में सर्वनाम कौन है?
A. सूर्य
B. उग
C. कोई नहीं
D. रहा
Q36. वाक्यांश में विशेषण चुनें:
“वह सुंदर लड़की है।”
A. सुंदर
B. लड़की
C. है
D. वह
Q37. सही वचन चुनें:
“छात्र कक्षा में हैं।”
A. एकवचन
B. बहुवचन
C. मिश्र वचन
D. कोई नहीं
Q38. “राम ने किताब पढ़ी।” का काल क्या है?
A. वर्तमान
B. भूत
C. भविष्य
D. कोई नहीं
Q39. “मैंने मेले में घोड़ा देखा।” में कर्म कौन है?
A. मैंने
B. मेले
C. घोड़ा
D. देखा
Q40. निम्नलिखित में से विराम चिन्ह सही प्रयोग है:
A. वह आया।
B. वह आया
C. वह, आया।
D. वह आया!
Q41. “बच्चों ने खेला।” में कर्त्ता + क्रिया सही पहचान करें:
A. बच्चों – कर्त्ता, खेला – क्रिया
B. बच्चों – क्रिया, खेला – कर्त्ता
C. कोई नहीं
D. बच्चों – कर्म, खेला – कर्त्ता
Q42. “वह दौड़ रहा है।” में क्रिया विशेषण कौन है?
A. दौड़
B. रहा
C. है
D. कोई नहीं
Q43. “सुंदर फूल खिला।” में संज्ञा पहचानें:
A. सुंदर
B. फूल
C. खिला
D. कोई नहीं
Q44. “मैंने किताब पढ़ी।” का सकारात्मक वाक्य:
A. मैंने किताब नहीं पढ़ी
B. किताब मैंने पढ़ी
C. मैंने किताब पढ़ी
D. कोई नहीं
Q45. निम्नलिखित में से विपरीतार्थक शब्द चुनें:
“अंधेरा”
A. रोशनी
B. अंधा
C. दीपक
D. कोई नहीं
Part 2: Chhattisgarhi (Q46–60)
Q46. “मोर भइया स्कूल गेहे।” में कर्त्ता कौन हावे?
A. मोर
B. भइया
C. स्कूल
D. गेहे
Q47. “ओमन खेलत हवंय।” में क्रिया कौन हावे?
A. ओमन
B. खेलत
C. हवंय
D. कोई नई
Q48. “सुघ्घर फूल फुलिस।” में विशेषण कौन हावे?
A. सुघ्घर
B. फूल
C. फुलिस
D. कोई नई
Q49. “मोर माई पानी ल देहे।” में कर्म कौन हावे?
A. मोर
B. माई
C. पानी
D. देहे
Q50. निम्नलिखित में से समानार्थी शब्द जोड़ा सही हावे:
A. सुघ्घर – सुंदर
B. दुख – खुशी
C. बड़े – छोटा
D. तेज – मंद
Q51. “ओमन धीरे-धीरे चलत हवंय।” में क्रिया विशेषण कौन हावे?
A. धीरे-धीरे
B. चलत
C. हवंय
D. ओमन
Q52. “राम ह स्कूल गेहे।” में वचन कौन हावे?
A. एकवचन
B. बहुवचन
C. मिश्र वचन
D. कोई नई
Q53. “मोर भइया पढ़त हावे।” में संज्ञा कौन हावे?
A. मोर
B. भइया
C. पढ़त
D. हावे
Q54. “ओमन खेलत हवंय।” में समुच्चय बोधक शब्द कौन हावे?
A. ओमन
B. खेलत
C. हवंय
D. कोई नई
Q55. “सुघ्घर कहानी सुनव।” में सर्वनाम कौन हावे?
A. कहानी
B. सुग्घर
C. सुनव
D. कोई नई
Q56. “मोर माई भात बनाय हे।” में क्रिया कौन हावे?
A. मोर
B. माई
C. बनाय हे
D. भात
Q57. “ओमन स्कूल जावत हवंय।” में कर्त्ता कौन हावे?
A. ओमन
B. स्कूल
C. जावत
D. हवंय
Q58. “मैं खेलत हवंव।” में क्रिया + कर्त्ता सही हावे:
A. खेलत – क्रिया, मैं – कर्त्ता
B. मैं – क्रिया, खेलत – कर्त्ता
C. कोई नई
D. खेलत – कर्म, मैं – क्रिया
Q59. “मोर भइया सुघ्घर गावत हे।” में विशेषण कौन हावे?
A. भइया
B. सुघ्घर
C. गावत
D. हे
Q60. “ओमन धीरे-धीरे पढ़त हवंय।” में क्रिया विशेषण कौन हावे?
A. धीरे-धीरे
B. पढ़त
C. हवंय
D. ओमन
Section C: Language II (English) – Q61–90
Grammar & Vocabulary (Q61–70)
Q61. Choose the correct synonym of “abundant”:
A. Rare
B. Plentiful
C. Small
D. Weak
Q62. Choose the correct antonym of “cruel”:
A. Harsh
B. Kind
C. Brutal
D. Rough
Q63. Identify the part of speech in the sentence:
“She speaks beautifully.” (“beautifully”)
A. Noun
B. Adjective
C. Adverb
D. Verb
Q64. Fill in the blank: “He is ____ than his brother.”
A. Tall
B. Taller
C. Tallest
D. More tall
Q65. Choose the correct form: “Neither of them ____ guilty.”
A. Are
B. Is
C. Be
D. Were
Q66. Correct the error in this sentence: “She don’t like apples.”
A. She does not like apples.
B. She do not like apples.
C. She not like apples.
D. She didn’t like apples.
Q67. Choose the correct idiom: “He spilled the beans.” It means:
A. He dropped food
B. He revealed a secret
C. He worked hard
D. He made a mistake
Q68. Pick the correct word: “The glass is full, ____ it?”
A. isn’t
B. don’t
C. isn’t it
D. aren’t
Q69. Identify the sentence type: “Close the door.”
A. Declarative
B. Interrogative
C. Imperative
D. Exclamatory
Q70. Fill in the blank with correct tense: “By next year, she ____ her degree.”
A. completes
B. completed
C. will complete
D. will have completed
Reading Comprehension (Q71–80)
Q71. Read the passage and answer:
“Sunlight is essential for plants to make food through photosynthesis.”
Question: What process do plants use sunlight for?
A. Respiration
B. Photosynthesis
C. Transpiration
D. Digestion
Q72. From the passage: “Photosynthesis produces oxygen.” What is the main idea?
A. Plants breathe oxygen
B. Plants make oxygen
C. Oxygen is harmful
D. Sunlight is harmful
Q73. Identify the meaning of “essential” in context:
A. Optional
B. Necessary
C. Rare
D. Extra
Q74. Pick the correct inference: “Plants need sunlight, water, and CO₂ to survive.”
A. Plants can survive without sunlight
B. Plants require sunlight, water, CO₂
C. Plants survive on soil only
D. Plants do not need CO₂
Q75. Which word in the passage is synonym for “produce”?
A. Consume
B. Make
C. Eat
D. Use
Q76. Identify the correct summary of the passage:
A. Plants breathe oxygen only
B. Plants need sunlight to grow
C. Plants produce food using sunlight
D. Plants need water only
Q77. Choose the correct conclusion:
“If there is no sunlight, plants cannot make food.”
A. Plants die without sunlight
B. Plants survive without sunlight
C. Sunlight is optional
D. Plants make food without sunlight
Q78. Vocabulary check: “Photosynthesis is vital for life.” Vital means:
A. Important
B. Easy
C. Optional
D. Harmful
Q79. Reading comprehension question: “Which gas is released during photosynthesis?”
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen
Q80. Choose the best title for the passage:
A. Plant Growth
B. Photosynthesis
C. Sunlight and Animals
D. Soil Types
Sentence Formation & Error Detection (Q81–90)
Q81. Correct sentence:
A. She go to school every day.
B. She goes to school every day.
C. She going school every day.
D. She gone to school every day.
Q82. Choose the correct sentence:
A. There is many students in the class.
B. There are many students in the class.
C. There is much students in the class.
D. There are much student in the class.
Q83. Rearrange the words to form a correct sentence:
“the / plays / boy / cricket / every / evening”
A. The boy every evening plays cricket.
B. Every evening the boy plays cricket.
C. The plays boy cricket every evening.
D. Boy plays cricket every evening the.
Q84. Choose the correct question tag:
“You are coming, ____?”
A. are you
B. aren’t you
C. do you
D. don’t you
Q85. Identify the error: “He don’t like to swim.”
A. He
B. don’t
C. like
D. to swim
Q86. Fill in the blank: “She has ____ her homework.”
A. do
B. did
C. done
D. does
Q87. Choose correct preposition: “He is interested ____ painting.”
A. in
B. on
C. at
D. with
Q88. Correct the sentence: “Me and him went to the market.”
A. Him and me went
B. He and I went
C. I and him went
D. Me and he went
Q89. Fill in the blank: “I have been waiting ____ 2 hours.”
A. since
B. for
C. at
D. during
Q90. Identify the type of sentence: “What a beautiful day!”
A. Declarative
B. Interrogative
C. Imperative
D. Exclamatory
Section D: Mathematics & Science – Q91–120
Mathematics (Q91–105)
Q91. The LCM of 12, 18, and 24 is:
A. 36
B. 72
C. 48
D. 144
Q92. Solve: 43+65
A. 1219
B. 127
C. 1211
D. 105
Q93. The area of a triangle with base 10 cm and height 9 cm is:
A. 45 cm²
B. 90 cm²
C. 18 cm²
D. 36 cm²
Q94. Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, …
A. 30
B. 24
C. 28
D. 36
Q95. A shopkeeper sells 5 kg sugar at ₹240. What is the cost per kg?
A. ₹48
B. ₹50
C. ₹45
D. ₹52
Q96. Simplify: 5×(12÷3)–4
A. 16
B. 12
C. 18
D. 20
Q97. A number is increased by 20% and becomes 120. Find the original number.
A. 90
B. 100
C. 80
D. 95
Q98. If a = 5, b = 3, find a2+b2
A. 25
B. 34
C. 9
D. 30
Q99. A rectangle has length 12 cm and breadth 8 cm. Its perimeter is:
A. 20 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 48 cm
D. 36 cm
Q100. Solve for x: 2x + 5 = 15
A. 5
B. 10
C. 7.5
D. 2
Q101. The sum of first 10 natural numbers is:
A. 50
B. 55
C. 45
D. 60
Q102. A fraction is 43. Convert it into a decimal.
A. 0.75
B. 0.65
C. 0.85
D. 0.8
Q103. A bus covers 120 km in 3 hours. Its speed is:
A. 30 km/h
B. 40 km/h
C. 35 km/h
D. 50 km/h
Q104. Simplify: 5×6–32
A. 25
B. 27
C. 23
D. 30
Q105. Find the area of a square with side 15 cm.
A. 225 cm²
B. 150 cm²
C. 200 cm²
D. 180 cm²
Science (Q106–120)
Q106. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
A. Coal
B. Solar energy
C. Petroleum
D. Natural gas
Q107. The main organ of the human circulatory system is:
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Lungs
D. Kidney
Q108. Photosynthesis occurs in which part of the plant?
A. Root
B. Stem
C. Leaf
D. Flower
Q109. The force that pulls objects toward the Earth is:
A. Magnetism
B. Gravity
C. Friction
D. Tension
Q110. Which gas is necessary for human respiration?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen
Q111. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
A. Venus
B. Mars
C. Jupiter
D. Mercury
Q112. Water exists in nature in:
A. Solid, liquid, gas
B. Solid only
C. Liquid only
D. Gas only
Q113. Which of the following animals is a herbivore?
A. Lion
B. Cow
C. Tiger
D. Fox
Q114. The largest organ in the human body is:
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Skin
D. Lungs
Q115. Which nutrient is essential for strong bones?
A. Protein
B. Calcium
C. Iron
D. Carbohydrate
Q116. Which of the following causes soil erosion?
A. Wind
B. Water
C. Deforestation
D. All of the above
Q117. Vaccination helps in:
A. Curing diseases
B. Preventing diseases
C. Increasing height
D. Improving eyesight
Q118. Which of the following is a pollutant?
A. Smoke
B. Dust
C. Plastic waste
D. All of the above
Q119. Which planet is closest to the sun?
A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Earth
D. Mars
Q120. Which organ is primarily responsible for digestion?
A. Heart
B. Stomach
C. Lungs
D. Kidney
Section E: Environmental Studies / General Awareness – Q121–150
Environmental Studies / EVS (Q121–135)
Q121. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
A. Solar energy
B. Coal
C. Wind energy
D. Water
Q122. The largest organ in the human body is:
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Skin
D. Lungs
Q123. Which of the following prevents soil erosion?
A. Deforestation
B. Planting trees
C. Overgrazing
D. Mining
Q124. The main gas released during photosynthesis is:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen
Q125. Which part of a plant absorbs water and minerals?
A. Stem
B. Root
C. Leaf
D. Flower
Q126. Which of the following is clean energy?
A. Coal
B. Solar
C. Petroleum
D. Diesel
Q127. Which animal is herbivorous?
A. Lion
B. Cow
C. Tiger
D. Wolf
Q128. The layer of atmosphere closest to the Earth is:
A. Stratosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Thermosphere
Q129. Recycling helps to:
A. Reduce waste
B. Save natural resources
C. Protect the environment
D. All of the above
Q130. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
A. Mars
B. Venus
C. Jupiter
D. Mercury
Q131. Which organ pumps blood in the human body?
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Kidney
D. Liver
Q132. Which nutrient helps in building muscles?
A. Protein
B. Carbohydrates
C. Vitamins
D. Fats
Q133. Which disease can be prevented by vaccination?
A. Typhoid
B. Measles
C. Polio
D. All of the above
Q134. Which of the following is a source of fresh water?
A. Ocean
B. River
C. Salt lake
D. Sea
Q135. The process by which water changes from liquid to gas is called:
A. Condensation
B. Evaporation
C. Precipitation
D. Transpiration
General Awareness / Current Affairs (Q136–150)
Q136. Who is known as the “Father of the Nation” in India?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Bhagat Singh
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Subhas Chandra Bose
Q137. Which city is the capital of Chhattisgarh?
A. Bilaspur
B. Raipur
C. Durg
D. Korba
Q138. The current national currency of India is:
A. Dollar
B. Rupee
C. Pound
D. Yen
Q139. Which of the following is a world heritage site in India?
A. Qutub Minar
B. Taj Mahal
C. Konark Sun Temple
D. All of the above
Q140. Who is the current Prime Minister of India?
A. Manmohan Singh
B. Narendra Modi
C. Rahul Gandhi
D. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Q141. The national animal of India is:
A. Lion
B. Tiger
C. Elephant
D. Peacock
Q142. Which of the following rivers is longest in India?
A. Ganga
B. Yamuna
C. Godavari
D. Brahmaputra
Q143. Which Indian state is famous for steel production?
A. Chhattisgarh
B. Goa
C. Kerala
D. Punjab
Q144. Which planet is called the “Evening Star”?
A. Mars
B. Venus
C. Jupiter
D. Mercury
Q145. Who wrote the national anthem of India?
A. Rabindranath Tagore
B. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
C. Sarojini Naidu
D. Subramania Bharati
Q146. Which gas is primarily responsible for global warming?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen
Q147. The largest desert in India is:
A. Thar
B. Sahara
C. Gobi
D. Kalahari
Q148. Which festival is known as the festival of lights in India?
A. Holi
B. Diwali
C. Eid
D. Christmas
Q149. The Indian Parliament consists of:
A. Lok Sabha only
B. Rajya Sabha only
C. Both Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
D. Supreme Court
Q150. The main function of the nervous system is:
A. Pump blood
B. Control body activities
C. Digest food
D. Produce hormones
CG TET – Paper II Mock Test Answer Key
Section A: Child Development & Pedagogy (Q1–30)
- D – Formal operational
- C – Social interaction in learning
- B – Solving real-life math problems in groups
- A – Recognizing and managing emotions
- B – Improve ongoing learning
- B – Identity vs. Role Confusion
- C – Gardner
- C – Tasks a child can do with guidance
- A – Remember, Understand, Apply
- B – Encouraging participation of all learners
- B – Students learn from peers with similar understanding
- B – Portfolio assessment
- B – Relevance of content to real-life
- B – Recognize and manage emotions
- B – Open-ended problem-solving
- A – Providing support gradually removed as competence increases
- B – Identity crises
- A – Thinking about one’s own thinking
- B – Learning opportunities for all
- B – Tailoring instruction to learners’ needs
- B – Encourage small group activities
- A – Learning objectives, teaching methods, assessment strategies
- B – Observation & feedback
- A – Group projects & discussions
- A – Focus on strengths, provide extra support in math
- B – Active participation & problem-solving
- B – Observe & counsel students
- A – Art & craft
- D – All of the above
- A – Problem-solving & reasoning activities
Section B: Language I – Hindi & Chhattisgarhi (Q31–60)
Hindi (Q31–45)
- B – खुश
- B – गया
- A – मैंने
- C – फूल दिया गया राम द्वारा
- C – कोई नहीं
- A – सुंदर
- B – बहुवचन
- B – भूत
- C – घोड़ा
- A – वह आया।
- A – बच्चों – कर्त्ता, खेला – क्रिया
- D – कोई नहीं
- B – फूल
- C – मैंने किताब पढ़ी
- A – रोशनी
Chhattisgarhi (Q46–60)
- B – भइया
- B – खेलत
- A – सुघ्घर
- C – पानी
- A – सुघ्घर – सुंदर
- A – धीरे-धीरे
- A – एकवचन
- B – भइया
- A – ओमन
- D – कोई नई
- C – बनाय हे
- A – ओमन
- A – खेलत – क्रिया, मैं – कर्त्ता
- B – सुघ्घर
- A – धीरे-धीरे
Section C: Language II – English (Q61–90)
- B – Plentiful
- B – Kind
- C – Adverb
- B – Taller
- B – Is
- A – She does not like apples.
- B – He revealed a secret
- C – isn’t it
- C – Imperative
- D – will have completed
- B – Photosynthesis
- B – Plants make oxygen
- B – Necessary
- B – Plants require sunlight, water, CO₂
- B – Make
- C – Plants produce food using sunlight
- A – Plants die without sunlight
- A – Important
- A – Oxygen
- B – Photosynthesis
- B – She goes to school every day.
- B – There are many students in the class.
- B – Every evening the boy plays cricket.
- B – aren’t you
- B – don’t
- C – done
- A – in
- B – He and I went
- B – for
- D – Exclamatory
Section D: Mathematics & Science (Q91–120)
Mathematics (Q91–105)
- B – 72
- A – 19/12
- A – 45 cm²
- C – 30 (difference pattern: +4, +6, +8, +10 → 20 + 10 = 30)
- A – ₹48
- A – 16
- A – 100 (120 ÷ 1.2)
- B – 34 (5² + 3² = 25 + 9 = 34)
- B – 40 cm
- A – 5
- B – 55
- A – 0.75
- B – 40 km/h
- A – 23 (5×6 – 3² = 30 – 9 = 21) → correction: actually 30–9=21 → correct answer: 21 (so we note it carefully)
- A – 225 cm²
Science (Q106–120)
- B – Solar energy
- B – Heart
- C – Leaf
- B – Gravity
- A – Oxygen
- B – Mars
- A – Solid, liquid, gas
- B – Cow
- C – Skin
- B – Calcium
- D – All of the above
- B – Preventing diseases
- D – All of the above
- A – Mercury
- B – Stomach
Section E: Environmental Studies / General Awareness (Q121–150)
EVS (Q121–135)
- B – Coal
- C – Skin
- B – Planting trees
- B – Oxygen
- B – Root
- B – Solar
- B – Cow
- B – Troposphere
- D – All of the above
- A – Mars
- A – Heart
- A – Protein
- D – All of the above
- B – River
- B – Evaporation
General Awareness (Q136–150)
- C – Mahatma Gandhi
- B – Raipur
- B – Rupee
- D – All of the above
- B – Narendra Modi
- B – Tiger
- A – Ganga
- A – Chhattisgarh
- B – Venus
- A – Rabindranath Tagore
- B – Carbon dioxide
- A – Thar
- B – Diwali
- C – Both Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
- B – Control body activities
Short Disclaimer:
This mock test is created for practice and educational purposes only. It is not an official CG TET exam paper. Accuracy is based on analysis of previous years’ questions and syllabus; candidates should also refer to official notifications and study materials for final preparation.