COMEDK UGET Mock Test

Physics Questions (Q1–20)

Q1. The SI unit of electric charge is:

A. Coulomb
B. Ampere
C. Volt
D. Ohm

Q2. A body of mass 2 kg is moving with velocity 3 m/s. Its kinetic energy is:

A. 9 J
B. 6 J
C. 12 J
D. 18 J

Q3. The time period of a simple pendulum depends on:

A. Mass of the bob
B. Length of the pendulum
C. Amplitude only
D. Both mass and amplitude

Q4. The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is approximately:

A. 9.8 m/s²
B. 1.6 m/s²
C. 3.7 m/s²
D. 0.98 m/s²

Q5. If the wavelength of light is 600 nm, its frequency (speed of light = 3 × 10⁸ m/s) is:

A. 5 × 10¹⁴ Hz
B. 6 × 10¹⁴ Hz
C. 4 × 10¹⁴ Hz
D. 3 × 10¹⁴ Hz

Q6. Ohm’s law states that:

A. V = IR
B. V = I/R
C. V = R/I
D. None of these

Q7. A wire has resistance 10 Ω. If it is stretched to double its length, its new resistance is:

A. 10 Ω
B. 20 Ω
C. 40 Ω
D. 5 Ω

Q8. The velocity of light in vacuum is:

A. 3 × 10⁶ m/s
B. 3 × 10⁸ m/s
C. 3 × 10¹⁰ m/s
D. 3 × 10⁵ m/s

Q9. The work done in moving a charge of 2 C through a potential difference of 12 V is:

A. 12 J
B. 24 J
C. 6 J
D. 2 J

Q10. The phenomenon of splitting of light into its component colors is called:

A. Diffraction
B. Dispersion
C. Polarization
D. Reflection

Q11. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:

A. Tesla
B. Weber
C. Gauss
D. Ampere

Q12. The number of oscillations of a 2 Hz tuning fork in 1 minute is:

A. 60
B. 120
C. 1200
D. 240

Q13. Two lenses of focal lengths 10 cm and 20 cm are in contact. The focal length of the combination is:

A. 6.67 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 8 cm

Q14. The escape velocity of a planet depends on:

A. Mass of the planet only
B. Radius of the planet only
C. Mass and radius of the planet
D. Temperature of planet

Q15. The property of a body to resist change in its state of motion is:

A. Momentum
B. Inertia
C. Force
D. Impulse

Q16. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

A. Velocity
B. Acceleration
C. Work
D. Force

Q17. The kinetic energy of a particle moving with velocity v is:

A. ½ mv²
B. mv²
C. ½ mv
D. 2 mv²

Q18. The speed of sound is maximum in:

A. Air
B. Water
C. Steel
D. Vacuum

Q19. A body in free fall from height h gains a velocity v. The relation between v and h is:

A. v = √(2gh)
B. v = √(gh)
C. v = 2gh
D. v = gh

Q20. The SI unit of power is:

A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Newton
D. Volt

Q21. A man jumps from a height of 5 m. The time taken to reach the ground is (g = 10 m/s²):

A. 1 s
B. √2 s
C. 1.5 s
D. 2 s

Q22. The angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection in:

A. Refraction
B. Diffraction
C. Reflection
D. Polarization

Q23. The work function of a metal is 4 eV. The threshold frequency of light for photoelectric emission is:

A. 10¹⁴ Hz
B. 1 × 10¹⁵ Hz
C. 1 × 10¹³ Hz
D. 2 × 10¹⁴ Hz

Q24. The potential difference across a resistor of 5 Ω carrying 2 A current is:

A. 10 V
B. 5 V
C. 2.5 V
D. 15 V

Q25. The energy of a photon is given by:

A. E = mc²
B. E = hf
C. E = ½ mv²
D. E = h / f

Q26. If the amplitude of a simple harmonic motion is doubled, its maximum velocity:

A. Remains same
B. Doubles
C. Quadruples
D. Halves

Q27. The escape velocity of Earth is approximately:

A. 5 km/s
B. 11 km/s
C. 8 km/s
D. 15 km/s

Q28. The force acting on a unit charge placed in an electric field is:

A. Voltage
B. Electric field intensity
C. Coulomb force
D. None

Q29. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends on:

A. Plate area and separation
B. Dielectric only
C. Voltage applied
D. Charge stored

Q30. In an AC circuit, the current leads the voltage by 90° in:

A. Resistor
B. Inductor
C. Capacitor
D. Both B and C

Q31. The SI unit of magnetic field (B) is:

A. Tesla
B. Weber
C. Gauss
D. Ampere

Q32. The time period of oscillation of a spring-mass system is:

A. 2π√(k/m)
B. 2π√(m/k)
C. √(k/m)
D. √(m/k)

Q33. If the focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm, its power is:

A. 2.5 D
B. 5 D
C. 10 D
D. 1 D

Q34. The phenomenon of bending of light around the edges of an obstacle is:

A. Diffraction
B. Dispersion
C. Reflection
D. Refraction

Q35. The maximum height attained by a projectile is:

A. v² sin²θ / 2g
B. v² cos²θ / 2g
C. v² sin2θ / g
D. v² / g

Q36. The unit of electric field is:

A. N/C
B. V/m
C. Both A and B
D. Volt

Q37. In a nuclear reaction, mass defect is converted into:

A. Energy
B. Momentum
C. Work
D. Radiation

Q38. The angle of deviation is minimum in:

A. Prism
B. Mirror
C. Lens
D. Diffraction grating

Q39. The relation between wavelength λ, frequency f, and speed v of wave is:

A. λ = v/f
B. λ = f/v
C. λ = vf
D. λ = v + f

Q40. The energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance C charged to voltage V is:

A. ½ CV²
B. CV²
C. 2CV²
D. ½ C²V


Chemistry Questions (Q1–20)

Q1. The atomic number of oxygen is:

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Q2. The molarity of 18 g of H₂SO₄ in 1 liter solution is:

A. 0.5 M
B. 1 M
C. 2 M
D. 1.5 M

Q3. Which of the following is an alkali metal?

A. Ca
B. Na
C. Al
D. Mg

Q4. The bond angle in water molecule (H₂O) is approximately:

A. 90°
B. 104.5°
C. 120°
D. 180°

Q5. Avogadro’s number is:

A. 6.022 × 10²³
B. 6.022 × 10²²
C. 3.14 × 10²³
D. 9.81 × 10²³

Q6. Which is a strong acid?

A. HCl
B. CH₃COOH
C. H₂CO₃
D. HF

Q7. The electron configuration of Carbon (Z = 6) is:

A. 1s² 2s² 2p²
B. 1s² 2s² 2p³
C. 1s² 2s² 2p⁴
D. 1s² 2s²

Q8. The IUPAC name of CH₃–CH₂–OH is:

A. Methanol
B. Ethanol
C. Propanol
D. Butanol

Q9. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:

A. 0
B. 7
C. 14
D. 1

Q10. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?

A. H₂
B. Cl₂
C. Na
D. Mg

Q11. The most reactive metal among Li, K, and Na is:

A. Li
B. Na
C. K
D. All same

Q12. Which gas is liberated when Zn reacts with HCl?

A. O₂
B. H₂
C. Cl₂
D. CO₂

Q13. The type of hybridization in methane (CH₄) is:

A. sp
B. sp²
C. sp³
D. dsp²

Q14. The molar mass of CO₂ is:

A. 44 g/mol
B. 28 g/mol
C. 32 g/mol
D. 16 g/mol

Q15. Which of the following is amphoteric?

A. NaOH
B. Al(OH)₃
C. HCl
D. KOH

Q16. The unit of gas constant R in PV = nRT is:

A. J/mol·K
B. L·atm/mol·K
C. Both A and B
D. None

Q17. In electrolysis of water, which gas is collected at cathode?

A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Chlorine

Q18. Which of the following is a polar molecule?

A. CO₂
B. CH₄
C. NH₃
D. O₂

Q19. The solubility product constant (Ksp) is used for:

A. Solubility of ionic salts
B. Rate of reaction
C. Equilibrium constant of gases
D. None

Q20. The reaction 2HgO → 2Hg + O₂ is an example of:

A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Decomposition
D. Displacement

Q21. Which of the following is a covalent compound?

A. NaCl
B. H₂O
C. KBr
D. CaCl₂

Q22. The pH of 0.01 M HCl solution is:

A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3

Q23. Which is a transition element?

A. Na
B. Fe
C. Mg
D. Ca

Q24. The oxidation number of S in H₂SO₄ is:

A. +2
B. +4
C. +6
D. +8

Q25. The type of bond in NaCl is:

A. Covalent
B. Ionic
C. Metallic
D. Hydrogen

Q26. The empirical formula of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) is:

A. CH₂O
B. C₆H₁₂O₆
C. C₂H₄O₂
D. CHO

Q27. The van der Waals equation corrects:

A. Ideal gas law for non-zero volume of molecules and intermolecular forces
B. Boyle’s law only
C. Charles’ law only
D. Dalton’s law only

Q28. Which element is liquid at room temperature?

A. Bromine
B. Chlorine
C. Fluorine
D. Iodine

Q29. In a redox reaction, oxidation refers to:

A. Gain of electrons
B. Loss of electrons
C. Gain of protons
D. Loss of protons

Q30. Which of the following is a strong base?

A. NaOH
B. NH₄OH
C. Al(OH)₃
D. CH₃COOH

Q31. Which of the following is an aromatic compound?

A. Benzene
B. Ethanol
C. Propane
D. Acetone

Q32. The major product of the reaction CH₃CH₂Br + NaOH (aq) is:

A. CH₃CH₂OH
B. CH₃CH₂OCH₃
C. CH₃CH₂Br
D. CH₃CH₃

Q33. The number of moles in 180 g of H₂O is:

A. 10
B. 5
C. 2
D. 1

Q34. The solubility of a salt increases with:

A. Decreasing temperature for all salts
B. Increasing temperature for all salts
C. Solubility depends on the salt
D. Pressure only

Q35. The reaction between HCl and NaOH is:

A. Neutralization
B. Redox
C. Decomposition
D. Displacement

Q36. Which gas is responsible for acid rain?

A. CO₂
B. SO₂
C. O₂
D. N₂

Q37. The shape of CH₄ molecule is:

A. Tetrahedral
B. Linear
C. Trigonal planar
D. Bent

Q38. The main constituent of natural gas is:

A. Ethane
B. Methane
C. Propane
D. Butane

Q39. The concentration of 1 M solution of NaOH is:

A. 40 g/L
B. 50 g/L
C. 60 g/L
D. 80 g/L

Q40. The first ionization energy of which element is highest?

A. Li
B. Be
C. B
D. He

Mathematics Questions (Q1–20)

Q1. The value of sin230°+cos260°\sin^2 30° + \cos^2 60°sin230°+cos260° is:

A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 1
D. 2

Q2. If x25x+6=0x^2 – 5x + 6 = 0x2−5x+6=0, then x = ?

A. 2, 3
B. 1, 6
C. 3, 5
D. -2, -3

Q3. The derivative of f(x)=x3f(x) = x^3f(x)=x3 is:

A. 3x²
B. 2x
C. x²
D. 3x³

Q4. The sum of first 20 natural numbers is:

A. 210
B. 190
C. 200
D. 220

Q5. The integral xdx\int x dx∫xdx equals:

A. x²
B. x² / 2 + C
C. 2x + C
D. ln x

Q6. If A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {2, 3, 4}, then A ∩ B = ?

A. {1, 2, 3, 4}
B. {2, 3}
C. {1, 4}
D. {1, 2}

Q7. The value of limx0sinxx\lim_{x→0} \frac{\sin x}{x}limx→0​xsinx​ is:

A. 0
B. 1
C. ∞
D. Does not exist

Q8. The roots of x² – 4x + 3 = 0 are:

A. 1, 3
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 3, 4

Q9. If the sum of angles of a triangle is 180°, then the triangle is:

A. Right-angled
B. Any triangle in Euclidean geometry
C. Equilateral only
D. Isosceles only

Q10. The slope of the line y = 2x + 3 is:

A. 2
B. 3
C. -2
D. -3

Q11. The solution of 2x + 5 = 9 is:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q12. If sin θ = 1/2, then θ = ? (0° ≤ θ ≤ 180°)

A. 30°, 150°
B. 45°, 135°
C. 60°, 120°
D. 90° only

Q13. The distance between points (3, 4) and (7, 0) is:

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. √32

Q14. The sum of first n odd numbers is:

A. n²
B. n(n+1)
C. 2n²
D. n(n-1)

Q15. The inverse of function f(x) = 2x – 3 is:

A. (x – 3)/2
B. 2x + 3
C. (x + 3)/2
D. (3 – x)/2

Q16. The binomial expansion of (a + b)² is:

A. a² + b²
B. a² + 2ab + b²
C. a² + ab + b²
D. a² + 3ab + b²

Q17. If a = 2, b = 3, then (a + b)² – (a – b)² = ?

A. 4
B. 12
C. 20
D. 24

Q18. The quadratic equation whose roots are 2 and –3 is:

A. x² + x – 6 = 0
B. x² – x – 6 = 0
C. x² – 5x + 6 = 0
D. x² + 5x + 6 = 0

Q19. The derivative of sin x is:

A. cos x
B. –cos x
C. sin x
D. –sin x

Q20. The integral 0dx\int 0 dx∫0dx equals:

A. 0
B. 1
C. C (constant)
D. x

Q21. The sum of first 50 natural numbers is:

A. 1250
B. 1275
C. 1300
D. 1350

Q22. The value of cos0°+sin90°\cos 0° + \sin 90°cos0°+sin90° is:

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. √2

Q23. If f(x) = x² + 2x, then f(3) = ?

A. 15
B. 12
C. 9
D. 18

Q24. The sum of squares of first 5 natural numbers is:

A. 30
B. 55
C. 50
D. 35

Q25. The distance between points (1,2) and (4,6) is:

A. 5
B. √20
C. 6
D. √18

Q26. The equation of a line passing through origin with slope 2 is:

A. y = 2x
B. y = x + 2
C. y = x – 2
D. y = ½ x

Q27. The solution of x² – 9 = 0 is:

A. x = 3, –3
B. x = 9, –9
C. x = 0, 3
D. x = 1, –9

Q28. The roots of equation x² – 4x + 4 = 0 are:

A. 2, 2
B. 4, 4
C. –2, –2
D. 1, 4

Q29. The derivative of exe^xex is:

A. x
B. e^x
C. 1
D. 0

Q30. If the arithmetic mean of 2 and 8 is A, the geometric mean is G, then A × G = ?

A. 12
B. 16
C. 18
D. 20

Q31. The solution of 3x – 7 = 2 is:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q32. The value of tan45°\tan 45°tan45° is:

A. 0
B. 1
C. √3
D. √2

Q33. The solution of 2x + 3y = 6 and x – y = 1 is:

A. x = 1, y = 2
B. x = 3, y = 0
C. x = 2, y = 1
D. x = 0, y = 2

Q34. The integral 2xdx\int 2x dx∫2xdx equals:

A. x² + C
B. 2x² + C
C. x² /2 + C
D. 2 + C

Q35. The slope of line 3x – 4y + 7 = 0 is:

A. 3/4
B. 4/3
C. –3/4
D. –4/3

Q36. The roots of x² + x – 6 = 0 are:

A. 2, –3
B. 3, –2
C. 1, –6
D. –1, 6

Q37. The sum of first n odd numbers is:

A. n²
B. n(n + 1)
C. 2n²
D. n(n – 1)

Q38. The derivative of cos x is:

A. sin x
B. –sin x
C. cos x
D. –cos x

Q39. The integral 1/xdx\int 1/x dx∫1/xdx equals:

A. ln|x| + C
B. x + C
C. 1/x + C
D. e^x + C

Q40. The quadratic equation with roots –1 and 5 is:

A. x² – 4x – 5 = 0
B. x² – 4x + 5 = 0
C. x² + 4x – 5 = 0
D. x² + 4x + 5 = 0

Physics (Q1–40)

Q.NoAnswer
1A
2B
3B
4B
5A
6A
7B
8A
9B
10B
11C
12A
13D
14B
15B
16C
17A
18C
19B
20B
21B
22B
23B
24A
25B
26B
27B
28B
29A
30C
31A
32B
33B
34A
35A
36B
37B
38A
39A
40A

Chemistry (Q1–40)

Q.NoAnswer
1A
2C
3B
4C
5A
6A
7B
8B
9C
10B
11A
12C
13B
14C
15B
16A
17B
18A
19B
20A
21A
22C
23B
24C
25B
26A
27B
28A
29B
30C
31A
32B
33B
34A
35B
36B
37B
38A
39B
40A

Mathematics (Q1–40)

Q.NoAnswer
1C
2A
3A
4A
5B
6A
7B
8A
9B
10A
11A
12B
13B
14A
15A
16B
17B
18A
19B
20A
21B
22B
23A
24A
25B
26A
27A
28B
29B
30A
31A
32B
33B
34A
35C
36B
37A
38B
39A
40D

Disclaimer:

This mock test and answer key is for educational and practice purposes only. It is not official and should be used to assess your preparation.