IMU CET Mock Test

IMU CET Mock Test

SectionNo. of QuestionsMarks per QuestionTotal MarksTopics CoveredDifficulty
Physics40140Mechanics, Properties of Matter, Thermodynamics, Waves, Optics, Electricity & Magnetism, Modern PhysicsHigh (PYQ-inspired)
Chemistry40140Physical Chemistry, Inorganic Chemistry, Organic Chemistry, High-difficulty conceptual & numerical questionsHigh (PYQ-inspired)
Mathematics40140Algebra, Trigonometry, Coordinate Geometry, Calculus, Vectors, Probability, StatisticsHigh (PYQ-inspired)
Total1201120Physics + Chemistry + MathematicsHigh (PYQ-inspired)

Physics (1–20)

Q1. A body of mass 2 kg is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s. Its kinetic energy is:
A) 20 J
B) 25 J
C) 10 J
D) 15 J

Q2. A particle moves in a circle of radius 4 m with a uniform speed of 2 m/s. Its centripetal acceleration is:
A) 1 m/s²
B) 2 m/s²
C) 4 m/s²
D) 0.5 m/s²

Q3. A body falls freely from a height of 45 m. Neglecting air resistance, the time taken to reach the ground is:
A) 3 s
B) 4 s
C) 2 s
D) 5 s

Q4. The work done by gravity on a body of mass m falling freely from a height h is:
A) mgh
B) 0
C) ½ mgh
D) 2 mgh

Q5. Two resistors of 4 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in series. The total resistance is:
A) 10 Ω
B) 24 Ω
C) 2.4 Ω
D) 1.5 Ω

Q6. The power delivered by a 12 V battery to a 3 Ω resistor is:
A) 36 W
B) 48 W
C) 12 W
D) 4 W

Q7. A wire of resistance R is stretched to double its length. Its new resistance is:
A) R/2
B) 2R
C) 4R
D) R

Q8. The magnetic force on a wire of length 0.5 m carrying 2 A perpendicular to a 0.3 T magnetic field is:
A) 0.3 N
B) 0.6 N
C) 0.5 N
D) 1 N

Q9. A particle executes SHM with amplitude 0.1 m and period 2 s. Its maximum velocity is:
A) 0.314 m/s
B) 0.628 m/s
C) 0.157 m/s
D) 0.785 m/s

Q10. The frequency of a wave with wavelength 2 m and speed 10 m/s is:
A) 5 Hz
B) 2 Hz
C) 10 Hz
D) 20 Hz

Q11. Light of wavelength 600 nm falls on a metal. If the work function is 2 eV, the photoelectric effect occurs. The energy of photons is approximately:
A) 2.07 eV
B) 1.87 eV
C) 3.0 eV
D) 4.0 eV

Q12. A charge of 2 μC is placed at a point where the electric potential is 12 V. The potential energy of the charge is:
A) 24 μJ
B) 12 μJ
C) 6 μJ
D) 48 μJ

Q13. The magnetic field at the center of a circular loop of radius 0.1 m carrying 2 A is (μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A):
A) 4 × 10⁻⁶ T
B) 1.26 × 10⁻⁵ T
C) 2 × 10⁻⁷ T
D) 8 × 10⁻⁷ T

Q14. A 10 μF capacitor is connected to 100 V. Energy stored in it is:
A) 0.05 J
B) 0.5 J
C) 50 J
D) 5 J

Q15. The ratio of the velocities of light in air and glass (n = 1.5) is:
A) 1:1.5
B) 1.5:1
C) 1:2
D) 2:1

Q16. A lens has focal length 20 cm. Its power is:
A) 5 D
B) 10 D
C) 15 D
D) 20 D

Q17. Two waves of frequencies 500 Hz and 502 Hz interfere. The beat frequency is:
A) 2 Hz
B) 1 Hz
C) 4 Hz
D) 500 Hz

Q18. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 2 hours. The fraction remaining after 6 hours is:
A) 1/8
B) 1/4
C) 1/2
D) 1/16

Q19. In a transformer, the primary has 1000 turns and secondary has 500 turns. The secondary voltage is 220 V. Primary voltage is:
A) 440 V
B) 110 V
C) 220 V
D) 330 V

Q20. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:
A) Tesla
B) Weber
C) Ampere
D) Henry

Physics (21–40)

Q21. A particle of mass 0.5 kg is moving in a straight line with a velocity of 4 m/s. It experiences a constant force of 2 N. The work done by the force in 3 seconds is:
A) 12 J
B) 18 J
C) 24 J
D) 36 J

Q22. A body weighs 100 N on Earth. Its weight on a planet where g = 20 m/s² is:
A) 200 N
B) 250 N
C) 100 N
D) 50 N

Q23. A 50 g mass is attached to a spring of stiffness 200 N/m. The period of oscillation is approximately:
A) 0.1 s
B) 0.5 s
C) 1 s
D) 2 s

Q24. A ray of light passes from water (n = 4/3) to air (n = 1). The critical angle is:
A) 48.6°
B) 41.8°
C) 45°
D) 30°

Q25. The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between 500 K and 300 K is:
A) 0.4
B) 0.5
C) 0.6
D) 0.7

Q26. The equivalent resistance of three resistors 2 Ω, 3 Ω, 6 Ω connected in parallel is:
A) 1 Ω
B) 1.5 Ω
C) 2 Ω
D) 3 Ω

Q27. A galvanometer has a resistance of 50 Ω and gives full-scale deflection for 1 mA. The shunt resistance to convert it into an ammeter of 5 A is approximately:
A) 0.01 Ω
B) 0.005 Ω
C) 0.02 Ω
D) 0.05 Ω

Q28. Two point charges of +3 μC and +12 μC are separated by 2 m in air. The force between them is:
(A) 81 N
B) 27 N
C) 54 N
D) 36 N

Q29. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends on:
A) Plate area and distance between plates
B) Plate material only
C) Voltage applied
D) Charge on the plates

Q30. The escape velocity from the surface of the Earth is approximately:
A) 9.8 m/s
B) 11.2 km/s
C) 7.5 km/s
D) 3 km/s

Q31. The energy of a photon of wavelength 400 nm is approximately:
A) 3.1 eV
B) 3.0 eV
C) 2.5 eV
D) 2.0 eV

Q32. The magnetic moment of an electron in orbit is proportional to:
A) Orbital angular momentum
B) Spin angular momentum
C) Mass
D) Charge only

Q33. A metallic rod moves with velocity 2 m/s perpendicular to a 0.5 T magnetic field. The induced EMF across the rod of length 1 m is:
A) 1 V
B) 0.5 V
C) 2 V
D) 3 V

Q34. A 20 μF capacitor is charged to 100 V. After disconnecting the battery, the plates are separated to double the distance. The new voltage is:
A) 100 V
B) 200 V
C) 50 V
D) 400 V

Q35. The velocity of sound in air at 0°C is 331 m/s. At 100°C, it is approximately:
A) 400 m/s
B) 343 m/s
C) 331 m/s
D) 350 m/s

Q36. A convex lens forms a real image at twice the focal length. The object distance is:
A) 2f
B) 3f
C) 4f/3
D) f

Q37. The intensity of light from a point source is 10 W/sr. The power received on 1 m² surface placed 2 m away is:
A) 2.5 W
B) 1.25 W
C) 5 W
D) 10 W

Q38. The angular momentum of a particle moving in a circle is constant if:
A) Net torque is zero
B) Speed is constant
C) Radius is constant
D) Mass is variable

Q39. A 1 kg mass executes simple harmonic motion with amplitude 0.1 m and angular frequency 10 rad/s. Maximum acceleration is:
A) 10 m/s²
B) 5 m/s²
C) 1 m/s²
D) 20 m/s²

Q40. A parallel beam of light falls on a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The distance of the image from the mirror is:
A) 20 cm
B) 40 cm
C) 10 cm
D) Infinity

Chemistry (1–20)

Q1. The molecular formula of glucose is:
A) C₆H₁₂O₆
B) C₆H₁₀O₅
C) C₅H₁₀O₅
D) C₆H₁₄O₆

Q2. Which of the following is an example of an acidic oxide?
A) CO₂
B) Na₂O
C) SO₂
D) MgO

Q3. The electronic configuration of Fe²⁺ is:
A) [Ar] 3d⁶
B) [Ar] 3d⁵
C) [Ar] 3d⁴
D) [Ar] 3d³

Q4. The molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 9 g of NaCl (M = 58.5 g/mol) in 0.5 L of water is:
A) 0.31 M
B) 0.30 M
C) 0.29 M
D) 0.32 M

Q5. In which type of reaction does oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously?
A) Combination
B) Redox
C) Substitution
D) Decomposition

Q6. The number of moles in 22 g of CO₂ is:
A) 0.5 mol
B) 1 mol
C) 2 mol
D) 0.25 mol

Q7. Which of the following is most reactive with water?
A) Na
B) K
C) Mg
D) Al

Q8. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 5

Q9. Which of the following is a strong acid?
A) HClO
B) HCl
C) CH₃COOH
D) H₂CO₃

Q10. Which of the following gases is released when Zn reacts with HCl?
A) O₂
B) H₂
C) Cl₂
D) CO₂

Q11. Which of the following is an allotrope of carbon?
A) Diamond
B) Graphite
C) Fullerene
D) All of these

Q12. The reaction of CH₄ with Cl₂ in presence of sunlight is an example of:
A) Addition reaction
B) Substitution reaction
C) Elimination reaction
D) Oxidation reaction

Q13. Which type of hybridization occurs in CH₄?
A) sp
B) sp²
C) sp³
D) dsp³

Q14. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂OH is:
A) Methanol
B) Ethanol
C) Propanol
D) Butanol

Q15. Which of the following is a tertiary alcohol?
A) CH₃CH₂OH
B) (CH₃)₂CHOH
C) (CH₃)₃COH
D) CH₃OH

Q16. The reaction of an acid with a base to form salt and water is called:
A) Neutralization
B) Oxidation
C) Reduction
D) Precipitation

Q17. Which of the following is a covalent compound?
A) NaCl
B) H₂O
C) MgO
D) KBr

Q18. The number of electrons in a molecule of H₂O is:
A) 10
B) 8
C) 12
D) 6

Q19. Which of the following is used in the manufacture of soap?
A) NaCl
B) NaOH
C) HCl
D) KCl

Q20. Which of the following exhibits hydrogen bonding?
A) CH₄
B) NH₃
C) C₂H₆
D) CO₂

Chemistry (21–40)

Q21. The major product formed when benzene reacts with Cl₂ in the presence of AlCl₃ is:
A) Chlorobenzene
B) 1,2-Dichlorobenzene
C) Benzyl chloride
D) o-Chlorotoluene

Q22. Which of the following elements exhibits variable oxidation states?
A) Na
B) Fe
C) Mg
D) Ne

Q23. The gas evolved when Na₂CO₃ reacts with HCl is:
A) O₂
B) CO₂
C) H₂
D) Cl₂

Q24. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
A) Sucrose
B) Glucose
C) Starch
D) Cellulose

Q25. The molarity of 0.585 g of NaOH (M = 40 g/mol) dissolved in 100 mL water is:
A) 0.146 M
B) 0.145 M
C) 0.15 M
D) 0.14 M

Q26. Which of the following oxides is basic in nature?
A) CO₂
B) Na₂O
C) SO₃
D) P₂O₅

Q27. The IUPAC name of HCOOH is:
A) Formic acid
B) Acetic acid
C) Methanoic acid
D) Both A and C

Q28. The type of bonding in NaCl is:
A) Covalent
B) Ionic
C) Metallic
D) Hydrogen

Q29. Which of the following compounds is aromatic?
A) Cyclohexane
B) Benzene
C) Cyclopentane
D) Ethane

Q30. The molar mass of Al₂(SO₄)₃ is:
A) 342 g/mol
B) 278 g/mol
C) 324 g/mol
D) 312 g/mol

Q31. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?
A) CH₃COOH
B) NaCl
C) NH₃
D) C₂H₅OH

Q32. Which of the following is a transition element?
A) Ca
B) Fe
C) Na
D) K

Q33. The oxidation number of S in H₂SO₄ is:
A) +6
B) +4
C) +2
D) +3

Q34. The hybridization of central atom in BF₃ is:
A) sp³
B) sp²
C) sp
D) dsp³

Q35. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
A) Na₂O
B) Al₂O₃
C) SO₂
D) CO₂

Q36. The reaction of an aldehyde with Tollens’ reagent gives:
A) Silver mirror
B) Precipitate of AgCl
C) Black precipitate
D) No reaction

Q37. The electronic configuration of Cl⁻ is:
A) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶
B) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁵
C) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁴
D) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p³

Q38. The number of sigma bonds in C₂H₂ is:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5

Q39. Which of the following is most reactive in nucleophilic substitution reactions?
A) CH₃Br
B) CH₃Cl
C) CH₃I
D) CH₃F

Q40. The concentration of OH⁻ in a solution with pH = 3 is:
A) 10⁻¹¹ M
B) 10⁻³ M
C) 10⁻⁷ M
D) 10⁻¹ M

Chemistry (21–40)

Q21. The major product formed when benzene reacts with Cl₂ in the presence of AlCl₃ is:
A) Chlorobenzene
B) 1,2-Dichlorobenzene
C) Benzyl chloride
D) o-Chlorotoluene

Q22. Which of the following elements exhibits variable oxidation states?
A) Na
B) Fe
C) Mg
D) Ne

Q23. The gas evolved when Na₂CO₃ reacts with HCl is:
A) O₂
B) CO₂
C) H₂
D) Cl₂

Q24. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
A) Sucrose
B) Glucose
C) Starch
D) Cellulose

Q25. The molarity of 0.585 g of NaOH (M = 40 g/mol) dissolved in 100 mL water is:
A) 0.146 M
B) 0.145 M
C) 0.15 M
D) 0.14 M

Q26. Which of the following oxides is basic in nature?
A) CO₂
B) Na₂O
C) SO₃
D) P₂O₅

Q27. The IUPAC name of HCOOH is:
A) Formic acid
B) Acetic acid
C) Methanoic acid
D) Both A and C

Q28. The type of bonding in NaCl is:
A) Covalent
B) Ionic
C) Metallic
D) Hydrogen

Q29. Which of the following compounds is aromatic?
A) Cyclohexane
B) Benzene
C) Cyclopentane
D) Ethane

Q30. The molar mass of Al₂(SO₄)₃ is:
A) 342 g/mol
B) 278 g/mol
C) 324 g/mol
D) 312 g/mol

Q31. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?
A) CH₃COOH
B) NaCl
C) NH₃
D) C₂H₅OH

Q32. Which of the following is a transition element?
A) Ca
B) Fe
C) Na
D) K

Q33. The oxidation number of S in H₂SO₄ is:
A) +6
B) +4
C) +2
D) +3

Q34. The hybridization of central atom in BF₃ is:
A) sp³
B) sp²
C) sp
D) dsp³

Q35. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
A) Na₂O
B) Al₂O₃
C) SO₂
D) CO₂

Q36. The reaction of an aldehyde with Tollens’ reagent gives:
A) Silver mirror
B) Precipitate of AgCl
C) Black precipitate
D) No reaction

Q37. The electronic configuration of Cl⁻ is:
A) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶
B) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁵
C) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁴
D) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p³

Q38. The number of sigma bonds in C₂H₂ is:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5

Q39. Which of the following is most reactive in nucleophilic substitution reactions?
A) CH₃Br
B) CH₃Cl
C) CH₃I
D) CH₃F

Q40. The concentration of OH⁻ in a solution with pH = 3 is:
A) 10⁻¹¹ M
B) 10⁻³ M
C) 10⁻⁷ M
D) 10⁻¹ M

Mathematics (21–40)

Q21. The distance between the points (3, 4) and (0, 0) is:
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 4

Q22. If x2+y2=25x² + y² = 25x2+y2=25 represents a circle, its radius is:
A) 5
B) √25
C) 25
D) Both A and B

Q23. The midpoint of the line joining (2, 3) and (4, 7) is:
A) (3, 5)
B) (3, 4)
C) (1, 2)
D) (2, 5)

Q24. The probability of getting a sum 7 when two dice are thrown is:
A) 1/6
B) 1/8
C) 1/12
D) 1/36

Q25. If A⃗=2i^+3j^\vec{A} = 2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}A=2i^+3j^​ and B⃗=i^–4j^\vec{B} = \hat{i} – 4\hat{j}B=i^–4j^​, then A⃗⋅B⃗\vec{A} · \vec{B}A⋅B = ?
A) –10
B) –8
C) 2
D) 14

Q26. The variance of the numbers 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 is:
A) 8
B) 6
C) 10
D) 5

Q27. The solution of ∣x–3∣=5|x – 3| = 5∣x–3∣=5 is:
A) x = 8, –2
B) x = 3, –5
C) x = 5, –3
D) x = 2, 8

Q28. The sum of angles in a quadrilateral is:
A) 360°
B) 180°
C) 270°
D) 540°

Q29. If a line passes through (1, 2) and has slope 3, its equation is:
A) y – 2 = 3(x – 1)
B) y – 1 = 3(x – 2)
C) y = 3x + 2
D) y = 2x + 3

Q30. If the probability of success in a single trial is 0.2, the probability of failure is:
A) 0.2
B) 0.8
C) 0.5
D) 0.6

Q31. The angle whose tangent is 1 is:
A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°

Q32. The sum of first 15 terms of the arithmetic progression 2, 5, 8, … is:
A) 360
B) 345
C) 375
D) 380

Q33. If A⃗=3i^+2j^\vec{A} = 3\hat{i} + 2\hat{j}A=3i^+2j^​, ∣A⃗∣|\vec{A}|∣A∣ = ?
A) √13
B) 5
C) 3
D) √12

Q34. The probability of drawing a red card from a standard deck of 52 cards is:
A) 1/2
B) 1/4
C) 1/3
D) 1/13

Q35. If y = x² + 5x – 3, then dy/dx = ?
A) 2x + 5
B) x² + 5
C) 2x – 5
D) x + 5

Q36. The sum of the first n odd numbers is:
A) n²
B) 2n²
C) n(n + 1)
D) n(n – 1)

Q37. The coordinates of the centroid of a triangle with vertices (0, 0), (3, 0), (0, 4) are:
A) (1, 1.33)
B) (1, 2)
C) (1, 4)
D) (1, 1)

Q38. The derivative of sinx+cosxsin x + cos xsinx+cosx is:
A) cos x – sin x
B) –cos x + sin x
C) cos x + sin x
D) –sin x – cos x

Q39. The sum of interior angles of a hexagon is:
A) 720°
B) 540°
C) 360°
D) 600°

Q40. If the roots of the quadratic x² – 5x + 6 = 0 are α and β, then αβ = ?
A) 6
B) 5
C) 1
D) –6

SectionQ.NoAnswer
Physics1B
2C
3A
4A
5A
6A
7C
8B
9B
10A
11A
12A
13B
14B
15A
16A
17A
18A
19A
20B
21C
22A
23B
24A
25C
26B
27A
28B
29A
30B
31A
32A
33A
34B
35B
36A
37B
38A
39D
40A
Chemistry1A
2C
3A
4A
5B
6A
7B
8B
9B
10B
11D
12B
13C
14B
15C
16A
17B
18A
19B
20B
21A
22B
23B
24B
25A
26B
27D
28B
29B
30A
31B
32B
33A
34B
35B
36A
37A
38A
39C
40A
Mathematics1A
2A
3A
4A
5A
6A
7A
8A
9A
10A
11A
12A
13A
14A
15A
16A
17A
18B
19A
20A
21A
22A
23A
24A
25A
26A
27A
28A
29A
30A
31B
32A
33A
34A
35A
36A
37A
38A
39A
40A

Disclaimer : This mock test is created for educational purposes only. Questions are inspired by previous IMU CET papers (PYQs) but this is not the official exam. Answers are provided for practice and self-assessment.