Duration: 3 Hours
Total Questions: 150
Subjects: Physics (50), Chemistry (50), Mathematics (50)
Total Marks: 150
Type: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Instructions:
- Each question carries 1 mark.
- No negative marking.
- Choose the correct option (A, B, C, D).
SECTION A – PHYSICS (50 Questions)
1. The SI unit of force is:
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Newton
D. Pascal
2. If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to have:
A. Accelerated motion
B. Uniform motion
C. Circular motion
D. Retarded motion
3. The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately:
A. 5 m/s²
B. 7.8 m/s²
C. 9.8 m/s²
D. 12 m/s²
4. Which mirror is used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?
A. Concave mirror
B. Convex mirror
C. Plane mirror
D. Cylindrical mirror
5. The work done is zero when the angle between force and displacement is:
A. 0°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 180°
6. The unit of electric current is:
A. Volt
B. Ampere
C. Ohm
D. Coulomb
7. Resistance of a conductor depends on:
A. Length
B. Area
C. Material
D. All of these
8. Heat transfer through vacuum occurs by:
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Diffusion
9. Speed of light in vacuum is:
A. 3 × 10⁶ m/s
B. 3 × 10⁸ m/s
C. 3 × 10⁵ km/s
D. Both B and C
10. Energy stored in a stretched spring is:
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Chemical energy
D. Heat energy
11. According to Newton’s First Law, a body will:
A. Always remain in motion
B. Always remain at rest
C. Change its state only when acted upon by an external force
D. Stop automatically
12. The force required to produce acceleration in a body is given by:
A. F = ma
B. F = m/a
C. F = a/m
D. F = mv
13. The unit of momentum is:
A. kg m/s
B. kg m/s²
C. Joule
D. Watt
14. The value of gravitational acceleration on the Moon is approximately:
A. 9.8 m/s²
B. 4.9 m/s²
C. 1.6 m/s²
D. 0.98 m/s²
15. Pressure is defined as:
A. Force × Area
B. Force / Area
C. Area / Force
D. Mass × Volume
16. The SI unit of pressure is:
A. Pascal
B. Newton
C. Joule
D. Watt
17. A hydraulic lift works on:
A. Newton’s law
B. Pascal’s law
C. Archimedes’ principle
D. Ohm’s law
18. The loudness of sound depends on:
A. Frequency
B. Wavelength
C. Amplitude
D. Speed
19. The speed of sound is maximum in:
A. Solids
B. Liquids
C. Gases
D. Vacuum
20. The frequency of a wave is measured in:
A. Hertz
B. Decibel
C. Meter
D. Pascal
21. The time taken for one complete oscillation is called:
A. Frequency
B. Amplitude
C. Time period
D. Wavelength
22. The device used to detect electric current is:
A. Voltmeter
B. Galvanometer
C. Ammeter
D. Ohmmeter
23. Ohm’s law states that:
A. V ∝ I
B. V ∝ 1/I
C. I ∝ R
D. R ∝ V
24. Electrical power is given by:
A. VI
B. V/I
C. I/R
D. R/I
25. The commercial unit of electrical energy is:
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Kilowatt-hour
D. Ampere
26. A fuse wire is made of:
A. Copper
B. Aluminium
C. Alloy of tin and lead
D. Iron
27. The magnetic field around a straight conductor is:
A. Linear
B. Circular
C. Spiral
D. Random
28. The device used to increase voltage is:
A. Motor
B. Generator
C. Transformer
D. Battery
29. A concave lens always forms:
A. Real image
B. Virtual image
C. Inverted image
D. Enlarged image
30. The focal length of a convex lens is:
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Infinite
31. The mirror formula is:
A. 1/f = 1/v − 1/u
B. 1/f = 1/v + 1/u
C. f = u + v
D. v = u/f
32. The magnification of a plane mirror is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. Greater than 1
D. Less than 1
33. The mechanical advantage of a lever is:
A. Load/Effort
B. Effort/Load
C. Load × Effort
D. Effort − Load
34. A pulley helps in:
A. Increasing work
B. Reducing effort
C. Increasing mass
D. Producing heat
35. Kinetic energy depends on:
A. Mass only
B. Velocity only
C. Both mass and velocity
D. Height
36. The unit of power is:
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Newton
D. Pascal
37. A body of mass 2 kg moving with velocity 3 m/s has momentum:
A. 5 kg m/s
B. 6 kg m/s
C. 7 kg m/s
D. 8 kg m/s
38. The phenomenon of floating is explained by:
A. Newton’s law
B. Archimedes’ principle
C. Ohm’s law
D. Snell’s law
39. The image formed by a concave mirror at focus is:
A. Real and inverted
B. Virtual and erect
C. Highly enlarged
D. Diminished
40. The refractive index of water is approximately:
A. 1
B. 1.33
C. 1.5
D. 2
41. The heat required to raise temperature by 1°C is called:
A. Specific heat
B. Heat capacity
C. Latent heat
D. Thermal energy
42. Boiling point of water at normal atmospheric pressure is:
A. 90°C
B. 95°C
C. 100°C
D. 110°C
43. The energy possessed due to position is:
A. Kinetic energy
B. Mechanical energy
C. Potential energy
D. Sound energy
44. The law of conservation of energy states:
A. Energy can be destroyed
B. Energy can be created
C. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
D. Energy is always lost
45. An electric motor converts:
A. Mechanical energy to electrical energy
B. Electrical energy to mechanical energy
C. Heat to light
D. Chemical to nuclear
46. The current in a circuit is measured using:
A. Voltmeter
B. Ammeter
C. Galvanometer
D. Barometer
47. The splitting of white light into seven colours is called:
A. Reflection
B. Refraction
C. Dispersion
D. Diffraction
48. The device used to measure atmospheric pressure is:
A. Thermometer
B. Barometer
C. Hydrometer
D. Lactometer
49. The SI unit of frequency is:
A. Watt
B. Hertz
C. Newton
D. Volt
50. The efficiency of a machine is always:
A. More than 100%
B. Equal to 100%
C. Less than or equal to 100%
D. Zero
SECTION B – CHEMISTRY (50 Questions)
51. The atomic number of an element represents:
A. Number of neutrons
B. Number of protons
C. Atomic mass
D. Valency
52. The chemical formula of common salt is:
A. KCl
B. NaCl
C. CaCl₂
D. Na₂CO₃
53. pH value less than 7 indicates:
A. Acidic solution
B. Basic solution
C. Neutral solution
D. Salt solution
54. The gas released during photosynthesis is:
A. CO₂
B. O₂
C. N₂
D. H₂
55. The smallest particle of an element that retains its properties is:
A. Molecule
B. Atom
C. Ion
D. Electron
56. Which of the following is a chemical change?
A. Melting of ice
B. Boiling of water
C. Rusting of iron
D. Cutting of paper
57. The valency of oxygen is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
58. LPG mainly contains:
A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Propane and Butane
D. Hydrogen
59. An example of a base is:
A. HCl
B. NaOH
C. CO₂
D. H₂SO₄
60. The process of coating iron with zinc is called:
A. Electroplating
B. Galvanization
C. Vulcanization
D. Distillation
61. The atomic mass of an element is determined by:
A. Number of protons
B. Number of electrons
C. Total number of protons and neutrons
D. Number of neutrons only
62. The element with atomic number 1 is:
A. Helium
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
63. Which of the following is an example of a compound?
A. Air
B. Water
C. Iron
D. Gold
64. The valency of sodium is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
65. The gas used in electric bulbs is:
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Argon
D. Hydrogen
66. The periodic table is arranged according to:
A. Atomic mass
B. Atomic number
C. Valency
D. Density
67. Which of the following is a noble gas?
A. Chlorine
B. Neon
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen
68. The reaction between acid and base produces:
A. Salt and water
B. Gas only
C. Water only
D. Salt only
69. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?
A. Sodium
B. Mercury
C. Aluminium
D. Copper
70. The process of heating ore in absence of air is called:
A. Roasting
B. Calcination
C. Smelting
D. Refining
71. The most abundant gas in air is:
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Argon
72. The chemical symbol of potassium is:
A. P
B. Po
C. K
D. Pt
73. Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
A. Burning of coal
B. Rusting of iron
C. Melting of wax
D. Digestion of food
74. The pH value of pure water is:
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
75. Which acid is present in vinegar?
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Nitric acid
76. Which element is essential for respiration?
A. Hydrogen
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon
77. The number of electrons in a neutral atom equals:
A. Number of neutrons
B. Number of protons
C. Atomic mass
D. Valency
78. Brass is an alloy of:
A. Copper and Zinc
B. Copper and Tin
C. Iron and Carbon
D. Aluminium and Copper
79. The formula of sulphuric acid is:
A. HCl
B. HNO₃
C. H₂SO₄
D. H₂CO₃
80. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Hydrogen
81. Electrolysis involves:
A. Chemical energy
B. Mechanical energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Nuclear energy
82. Which metal is used in galvanization?
A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Zinc
D. Aluminium
83. The hardest natural substance is:
A. Gold
B. Iron
C. Diamond
D. Silver
84. Which of the following is a non-metal?
A. Copper
B. Iron
C. Sulphur
D. Aluminium
85. The substance that turns blue litmus red is:
A. Base
B. Acid
C. Salt
D. Alcohol
86. The process of separating cream from milk is:
A. Filtration
B. Distillation
C. Centrifugation
D. Sublimation
87. Which gas is used in fire extinguishers?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Hydrogen
88. The chemical formula of ammonia is:
A. NH₃
B. NO₂
C. N₂O
D. NH₄
89. The outermost shell of an atom is called:
A. K-shell
B. L-shell
C. Valence shell
D. Nucleus
90. Which of the following is a strong acid?
A. CH₃COOH
B. HCl
C. NH₄OH
D. NaOH
91. The process of loss of electrons is called:
A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Neutralization
D. Sublimation
92. Which element is used in making pencils?
A. Graphite
B. Lead
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Silicon
93. The chemical formula of calcium carbonate is:
A. CaCO₃
B. CaCl₂
C. CaSO₄
D. CaO
94. Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon?
A. Ethene
B. Ethyne
C. Methane
D. Benzene
95. The process of conversion of solid directly into gas is:
A. Evaporation
B. Condensation
C. Sublimation
D. Freezing
96. Which of the following is an exothermic reaction?
A. Photosynthesis
B. Burning of fuel
C. Melting of ice
D. Boiling of water
97. The element required for making stainless steel is:
A. Chromium
B. Zinc
C. Sodium
D. Magnesium
98. Which of the following is an indicator?
A. NaCl
B. Phenolphthalein
C. Sugar
D. Alcohol
99. The atomic number of carbon is:
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
100. The process of preventing corrosion by coating metal with paint is called:
A. Galvanization
B. Alloying
C. Painting
D. Rusting
SECTION C – MATHEMATICS (50 Questions)
101. If 2x + 5 = 15, then x =
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
102. The value of (a + b)² is:
A. a² + b²
B. a² + 2ab + b²
C. a² − 2ab + b²
D. 2a² + b²
103. The HCF of 12 and 18 is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
104. If sin θ = 1, then θ equals:
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 60°
D. 90°
105. The area of a circle is:
A. 2πr
B. πr²
C. πd
D. r²
106. If the radius of a circle is doubled, its area becomes:
A. Double
B. Triple
C. Four times
D. Half
107. The mean of first five natural numbers is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
108. If a die is thrown, probability of getting 3 is:
A. 1/3
B. 1/6
C. 1/2
D. 1
109. The slope of a horizontal line is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. −1
D. Undefined
110. The simple interest on ₹1000 at 10% per annum for 2 years is:
A. ₹100
B. ₹150
C. ₹200
D. ₹250
Disclaimer
“This is a sample paper created for practice purposes only. It is inspired by CG Vyapam syllabus and previous year trends, and is not an official exam paper.
Answer
Answer Key
| Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | 23 | A | 45 | B | 67 | B | 89 | C |
| 2 | B | 24 | A | 46 | B | 68 | A | 90 | B |
| 3 | C | 25 | C | 47 | C | 69 | B | 91 | B |
| 4 | B | 26 | C | 48 | B | 70 | B | 92 | A |
| 5 | C | 27 | B | 49 | B | 71 | B | 93 | A |
| 6 | B | 28 | C | 50 | C | 72 | C | 94 | C |
| 7 | D | 29 | B | 51 | C | 73 | C | 95 | C |
| 8 | C | 30 | C | 52 | B | 74 | C | 96 | B |
| 9 | D | 31 | B | 53 | A | 75 | C | 97 | A |
| 10 | B | 32 | B | 54 | B | 76 | C | 98 | B |
| 11 | C | 33 | A | 55 | B | 77 | B | 99 | B |
| 12 | A | 34 | B | 56 | C | 78 | A | 100 | C |
| 13 | A | 35 | C | 57 | B | 79 | C | 101 | C |
| 14 | C | 36 | B | 58 | C | 80 | C | 102 | B |
| 15 | B | 37 | B | 59 | B | 81 | C | 103 | C |
| 16 | A | 38 | B | 60 | B | 82 | C | 104 | D |
| 17 | B | 39 | C | 61 | C | 83 | C | 105 | B |
| 18 | C | 40 | B | 62 | B | 84 | C | 106 | C |
| 19 | A | 41 | B | 63 | B | 85 | B | 107 | B |
| 20 | A | 42 | C | 64 | B | 86 | C | 108 | B |
| 21 | C | 43 | C | 65 | C | 87 | C | 109 | A |
| 22 | B | 44 | C | 66 | B | 88 | A | 110 | C |