- General Awareness – 20 MCQs
- Mental Ability – 30 MCQs
- Teaching Aptitude / Educational Interest – 30 MCQs
- General English – 10 MCQs
- General Hindi – 10 MCQs
CG Pre B.Ed 100 MCQ SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
SECTION A – GENERAL AWARENESS (20 Questions)
Q1. Who wrote the Indian National Anthem?
A) Rabindranath Tagore
B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
C) Sarojini Naidu
D) Kavi Pradeep
Q2. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
A) Mercury
B) Venus
C) Mars
D) Jupiter
Q3. What is the capital of Chhattisgarh?
A) Durg
B) Bilaspur
C) Raipur
D) Rajnandgaon
Q4. Which one of these is a fundamental duty?
A) Right to property
B) To protect the environment
C) Freedom of speech
D) Right to education
Q5. Who is called the ‘Father of Indian Constitution’?
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) B.R. Ambedkar
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) S. Radhakrishnan
Q6. Which day is celebrated as Teachers’ Day in India?
A) 5th September
B) 15th August
C) 1st June
D) 14th November
Q7. The scheme ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ aims primarily at:
A) Reducing crime
B) Women empowerment
C) Promoting girl education
D) Poverty elimination
Q8. The Lok Sabha term is:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) 3 years
Q9. Who is the President of India (as of 2026)?
A) (latest option)
B) (latest option)
C) (latest option)
D) (latest option)
Q10. Which one of these is a renewable resource?
A) Coal
B) Petroleum
C) Natural gas
D) Solar energy
Q11. India’s first satellite was:
A) INSAT‑1A
B) Aryabhata
C) Kalpana‑1
D) GSAT‑7
Q12. Which of the following is used to measure temperature?
A) Barometer
B) Thermometer
C) Ammeter
D) Speedometer
Q13. National Education Policy was introduced in:
A) 2005
B) 2016
C) 2020
D) 2022
Q14. Which city is known as the ‘Silver City’?
A) Jabalpur
B) Ujjain
C) Raipur
D) Indore
Q15. Who founded the first Indian School of Education?
A) Rabindranath Tagore
B) Dr. Zakir Husain
C) Mahatma Gandhi
D) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Q16. Who wrote the book ‘Discovery of India’?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) B.R. Ambedkar
D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Q17. The Green Revolution in India boosted which sector?
A) Education
B) Agriculture
C) Industry
D) Transportation
Q18. The Indian Constitution came into effect on:
A) 26 January 1950
B) 15 August 1947
C) 26 November 1949
D) 1 January 1950
Q19. Which river is called the ‘Ganga of the South’?
A) Godavari
B) Krishna
C) Kaveri
D) Tungabhadra
Q20. Who among the following is a famous educational reformer?
A) Rousseau
B) Plato
C) Froebel
D) Shakespeare
SECTION B – GENERAL MENTAL ABILITY (30 Questions)
Q21. 7, 14, 28, 56, ___?
A) 64
B) 70
C) 112
D) 84
Q22. If CAT = 3120 (C=3, A=1, T=20), then DOG =
A) 4157
B) 4577
C) 4607
D) 7157
Q23. If all apples are fruits and some fruits are oranges, then:
A) All oranges are apples
B) Some fruits are apples
C) All fruits are oranges
D) No apple is orange
Q24. Which number comes next? 4, 9, 16, 25, ___?
A) 30
B) 36
C) 35
D) 32
Q25. A clock shows 9:15. The angle between hour and minute hand is:
A) 0°
B) 30°
C) 7.5°
D) 45°
Q26. If BOOK is coded as COOL, what is CODE for MOOD?
A) KNND
B) NPPE
C) MOOE
D) NPOE
Q27. A trains starts at 10:00 am and reaches at 1:30 pm. The total travel time is:
A) 3.5 hrs
B) 4 hrs
C) 2.5 hrs
D) 4.5 hrs
Q28. Find the missing number: 5, 10, 8, 16, 14, __?
A) 20
B) 18
C) 12
D) 22
Q29. If 5 pens cost ₹150, 12 pens cost:
A) ₹250
B) ₹300
C) ₹360
D) ₹380
Q30. In a code language, if ‘HAPPY’ is written as ‘JCRRA’, then ‘SMART’ is:
A) UOCTV
B) UOBTV
C) UQCTV
D) UQBTU
Q31. Which of the following is analogy?
A) Bird : Fly
B) Fish : Swim
C) Sun : Hot
D) All
Q32. 101, 110, 121, ___?
A) 132
B) 144
C) 131
D) 133
Q33. What is 25% of 240?
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
Q34. If P is 16th letter, then what is 4 letters before T?
A) P
B) Q
C) R
D) S
Q35. Choose the odd one out:
A) 3, 6
B) 15, 20
C) 21, 25
D) 10, 14
Q36. Find missing: 15, 27, 45, 69, ___?
A) 87
B) 93
C) 90
D) 87
Q37. A boat travels 120 km in 3 hrs. Speed is:
A) 30 km/h
B) 40 km/h
C) 35 km/h
D) 45 km/h
Q38. If SUNDAY is written as YADNUS, then MONDAY is:
A) YADNOM
B) DNAYOM
C) YADMOM
D) MONDAY
Q39. A cube has 6 faces. How many edges?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 16
Q40. 8×8×8 =
A) 512
B) 256
C) 128
D) 1024
Q41. Which shape has 4 equal sides?
A) Rectangle
B) Square
C) Triangle
D) Circle
Q42. 63 ÷ 7 =
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 6
Q43. If 75=35, 53=15, then 7*3=
A) 11
B) 21
C) 25
D) 17
Q44. Which is next: 12, 18, 27, 41?
A) 54
B) 56
C) 63
D) 60
Q45. 2×(3+5) =
A) 16
B) 13
C) 10
D) 20
Q46. 45% of 200 is:
A) 80
B) 85
C) 90
D) 100
Q47. In sequence: EVEN, ZERO, VETO, ETON — the pattern is:
A) Remove first letter
B) Reverse remainder
C) Replace vowel
D) Add letter
Q48. How many seconds in 5 minutes?
A) 300
B) 250
C) 150
D) 100
Q49. 3×3×3 =
A) 9
B) 27
C) 81
D) 243
Q50. Find the odd one out:
A) Dog
B) Cat
C) Tree
D) Lion
SECTION C – EDUCATIONAL INTEREST / TEACHING APTITUDE (30 Questions)
Q51. Who is associated with Multiple Intelligences Theory?
A) B.F. Skinner
B) Jean Piaget
C) Howard Gardner
D) Lev Vygotsky
Q52. The main focus of education is to:
A) Teach facts only
B) Develop personality
C) Create competition
D) Build factories
Q53. Formative assessment is best described as:
A) Final examination
B) Continuous evaluation
C) Surprise test
D) Judgment only
Q54. Which is an example of cooperative learning?
A) Lecture only
B) Group activity
C) Note copying
D) Individual test
Q55. A teacher’s primary duty is to:
A) Punish students
B) Deliver content
C) Facilitate learning
D) Collect fees
Q56. Education that includes all children without discrimination is called:
A) Exclusive education
B) Formal education
C) Selective education
D) Inclusive education
Q57. The affective domain relates to:
A) Skills
B) Feelings and values
C) Knowledge
D) Physical strength
Q58. Which of the following is an example of summative assessment?
A) Class discussion
B) Unit test at the end of term
C) Spot quiz
D) Feedback session
Q59. The aim of balanced curriculum is to:
A) Focus only on science
B) Ignore arts
C) Give equal importance to all areas
D) Emphasize sports alone
Q60. Bloom’s taxonomy includes:
A) Physical skills
B) Motor development
C) Cognitive domain
D) Salary structure
Q61. Pedagogy means:
A) Art of teaching
B) Examination pattern
C) School building
D) Student grouping
Q62. Child‑centered education focuses on:
A) Teacher only
B) Student only
C) Syllabus only
D) Parents only
Q63. Which is a method of teaching?
A) Lecturing
B) Sleeping
C) Reading newspaper
D) Watching TV
Q64. IEP stands for:
A) Internal Education Policy
B) Individualized Education Program
C) Innovative English Practice
D) International Education Plan
Q65. A good teacher should possess:
A) Patience
B) Strictness only
C) Shouting power
D) Silence
Q66. Play way method is best for:
A) Adults
B) Children
C) Old age only
D) Only teachers
Q67. Learning by doing was emphasized by:
A) Dewey
B) Plato
C) Aristotle
D) Newton
Q68. Curriculum defines:
A) Teachers list
B) Books to be taught
C) Syllabus + activities + experiences
D) Only timetable
Q69. Which assessment measures progress over time?
A) Diagnostic
B) Summative
C) Norm‑referenced
D) Formative
Q70. Problem‑solving approach helps in:
A) Only memorization
B) Finding solutions
C) Taking rest
D) Ignoring problems
Q71. The term learning outcome refers to:
A) Teaching hours
B) Students’ achievements
C) Exams only
D) Marks only
Q72. Learning that occurs outside classroom is:
A) Formal learning
B) Non‑formal learning
C) Informal learning
D) Remedial learning
Q73. In education, motivation means:
A) Discouragement
B) Encouraging learners
C) Giving punishment
D) Emphasizing scores
Q74. Diagnostic test is used to identify:
A) Teacher strengths
B) Students’ difficulties
C) School location
D) Syllabus dates
Q75. Active learning involves:
A) Passive listening
B) Student participation
C) Watching others
D) Sleeping in class
Q76. Which of these is a teaching resource?
A) Textbooks
B) Walls
C) Shoes
D) Lunch box
Q77. A child who learns best through visuals is called:
A) Auditory learner
B) Visual learner
C) Kinesthetic learner
D) None
Q78. Rubrics are used for:
A) Scoring guide
B) Uniform
C) Classroom seat
D) Calendar
Q79. Assessment for learning is also known as:
A) Summative
B) Feedback assessment
C) Final test
D) Unplanned test
Q80. Teaching that uses real‑life contexts is:
A) Rote teaching
B) Experiential teaching
C) Independent teaching
D) Traditional teaching
SECTION D – GENERAL ENGLISH (10 Questions)
Q81. Choose the correct meaning of “Abundant”:
A) Rare
B) Plentiful
C) Empty
D) Dull
Q82. Fill the blank: She ___ reading every evening.
A) is
B) are
C) am
D) be
Q83. Another word for “Happy” is:
A) Sad
B) Joyful
C) Angry
D) Tired
Q84. Choose the correct option:
“He ___ his homework yesterday.”
A) do
B) did
C) done
D) does
Q85. Fill in the blank: They ___ to school on weekends.
A) goes
B) go
C) going
D) gone
Q86. Antonym of “Scarce” is:
A) Rare
B) Plentiful
C) Weak
D) Shallow
Q87. Choose correct sentence:
A) She don’t like apples.
B) He doesn’t know.
C) They isn’t ready.
D) I doesn’t want.
Q88. The plural of “Child” is:
A) Childs
B) Children
C) Childes
D) Childrens
Q89. Fill in the blank: He ___ go to market every day.
A) will
B) shall
C) must
D) should
Q90. The synonym of “Quick” is:
A) Slow
B) Rapid
C) Late
D) Weak
SECTION E – GENERAL HINDI (10 Questions)
Q91. “विद्यालय” का दूसरा नाम है:
A) स्कूल
B) पुस्तक
C) शिक्षक
D) खेल
Q92. ‘स्वागत’ का पर्यायवाची है:
A) अलविदा
B) अभिनन्दन
C) रोना
D) गाना
Q93. नीचे दिए गए विकल्प में सही वाक्य चुनें:
A) वह आज बाजार गया।
B) वह आज बाजार गये।
C) वह आज बाजार गयी।
D) वह आज बाजार गए।
Q94. ‘सुख’ का विलोम शब्द है:
A) दुःख
B) शांति
C) आनंद
D) व्यापार
Q95. “सीखना” शब्द का सही अर्थ है:
A) जानना
B) भूलना
C) बैठना
D) खाना
Q96. कर्ता व क्रिया का सही मिलान है:
A) मैं – खेलता हूँ
B) तुम – खेलता हूँ
C) हम – खेलता हूँ
D) वह – खेलते हैं
Q97. ‘बुद्धिमान’ का अर्थ है:
A) तेज
B) मूर्ख
C) ज्ञानी
D) आलसी
Q98. उपसर्ग से संबंधित शब्द चुनिए:
A) विद्यालय
B) खेल
C) पुस्तक
D) कुर्सी
Q99. ‘शांत’ का पर्यायवाची है:
A) कोलाहल
B) शांतिपूर्ण
C) अस्थिर
D) तेज
Q100. “अच्छा शिक्षक” का उद्देश्य है:
A) शिक्षा देना
B) छात्रों को प्रेरित करना
C) परीक्षा लेना
D) रिकॉर्ड बनाना
Disclaimer
“This is a sample paper created for practice purposes only. It is inspired by CG Vyapam syllabus and previous year trends, and is not an official exam paper.
Answer
| Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | A | 26 | B | 51 | C | 76 | A |
| 2 | C | 27 | A | 52 | B | 77 | B |
| 3 | C | 28 | B | 53 | B | 78 | A |
| 4 | B | 29 | C | 54 | B | 79 | B |
| 5 | B | 30 | A | 55 | C | 80 | B |
| 6 | A | 31 | D | 56 | D | 81 | B |
| 7 | C | 32 | B | 57 | B | 82 | A |
| 8 | B | 33 | B | 58 | B | 83 | B |
| 9 | B | 34 | A | 59 | C | 84 | B |
| 10 | D | 35 | C | 60 | C | 85 | B |
| 11 | B | 36 | B | 61 | A | 86 | B |
| 12 | A | 37 | B | 62 | B | 87 | B |
| 13 | A | 38 | A | 63 | A | 88 | B |
| 14 | B | 39 | C | 64 | B | 89 | D |
| 15 | A | 40 | A | 65 | A | 90 | B |
| 16 | C | 41 | B | 66 | D | 91 | A |
| 17 | B | 42 | A | 67 | A | 92 | B |
| 18 | C | 43 | B | 68 | C | 93 | A |
| 19 | C | 44 | C | 69 | D | 94 | A |
| 20 | B | 45 | A | 70 | B | 95 | A |
| 21 | C | 46 | C | 71 | B | 96 | A |
| 22 | B | 47 | B | 72 | C | 97 | C |
| 23 | B | 48 | A | 73 | B | 98 | A |
| 24 | B | 49 | B | 74 | B | 99 | B |
| 25 | C | 50 | B | 75 | B | 100 | B |