SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test – 100 Questions with Answer

SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test (100 Questions)

  • 25 General Intelligence & Reasoning
  • 25 General Awareness
  • 25 Quantitative Aptitude
  • 25 English Comprehension
  • 100 Questions | 200 Marks | 60 Minutes

SECTION 1: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING (1–25)

  1. If A = 1, B = 2 … Z = 26, what is the value of CODE?
    A) 27
    B) 26
    C) 25
    D) 27
  2. Find the missing number:
    3, 9, 27, ?, 243
    A) 54
    B) 72
    C) 81
    D) 99
  3. In a certain code, TRAIN is written as SQZHM. How is PLANE written?
    A) OKZMD
    B) OKZLD
    C) OLZMD
    D) OKYMD
  4. Find the odd one out:
    A) Square
    B) Triangle
    C) Rectangle
    D) Sphere
  5. If South-East becomes North, what will West become?
    A) South
    B) North-East
    C) East
    D) North-West
  6. A is brother of B. C is father of A. D is sister of C. How is D related to B?
    A) Aunt
    B) Sister
    C) Mother
    D) Cousin
  7. Mirror image of 2:15 (clock) will be:
    A) 9:45
    B) 8:45
    C) 10:15
    D) 9:15
  8. Complete the series:
    AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
    A) EV
    B) FV
    C) EU
    D) FU
  9. If 5 + 3 = 28 and 6 + 2 = 32, then 7 + 4 = ?
    A) 77
    B) 88
    C) 84
    D) 90
  10. Find missing term:
    2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
    A) 40
    B) 42
    C) 44
    D) 48
  11. If 8 × 4 = 48 and 7 × 3 = 35, then 6 × 5 = ?
    A) 55
    B) 60
    C) 66
    D) 72
  12. Find the missing term:
    1, 4, 9, 16, ?, 36
    A) 20
    B) 24
    C) 25
    D) 30
  13. In a row of 40 students, Ravi is 12th from the left. What is his position from the right?
    A) 27
    B) 28
    C) 29
    D) 30
  14. Select the related pair:
    Book : Author :: Painting : ?
    A) Canvas
    B) Artist
    C) Brush
    D) Gallery
  15. If CAT = 24 and DOG = 26 (sum of alphabetical positions), then BAT = ?
    A) 23
    B) 24
    C) 25
    D) 26
  16. A cube has how many edges?
    A) 8
    B) 12
    C) 10
    D) 6
  17. Statement: All roses are flowers. Some flowers fade quickly.
    Conclusion:
    I. Some roses fade quickly.
    II. Some flowers are roses.

A) Only I follows
B) Only II follows
C) Both follow
D) Neither follows

  1. If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then
    8 + 4 − 2 × 6 ÷ 3 = ?
    A) 10
    B) 6
    C) 12
    D) 8
  2. Find the odd one out:
    A) January
    B) March
    C) May
    D) June
  3. If 15 August 2025 is Friday, what day will 15 August 2026 be?
    A) Saturday
    B) Sunday
    C) Monday
    D) Friday
  4. Find missing number:
    5, 10, 20, 40, ?
    A) 60
    B) 70
    C) 80
    D) 90
  5. Choose the correct water image of the word “MATH”.
    A) HTAM
    B) MATH
    C) WATH
    D) HTAW
  6. If P is taller than Q but shorter than R, who is tallest?
    A) P
    B) Q
    C) R
    D) Cannot determine
  7. How many triangles are there in a triangle formed by joining the midpoints of all sides?
    A) 4
    B) 5
    C) 6
    D) 8
  8. Arrange in logical order:
    • A- Seed
    • B – Plant
    • C – Tree
    • D – Flower

A) 1,2,3,4
B) 1,3,2,4
C) 2,1,3,4
D) 1,2,4,3


SECTION 2: GENERAL AWARENESS (26–50)

  1. The Constitution of India came into effect on:
    A) 15 August 1947
    B) 26 January 1950
    C) 26 November 1949
    D) 2 October 1950
  2. The headquarters of RBI is located in:
    A) Delhi
    B) Mumbai
    C) Kolkata
    D) Chennai
  3. Vitamin C deficiency causes:
    A) Rickets
    B) Scurvy
    C) Beriberi
    D) Night blindness
  4. The longest river in India is:
    A) Yamuna
    B) Godavari
    C) Ganga
    D) Narmada
  5. Who wrote The Discovery of India?
    A) Mahatma Gandhi
    B) Jawaharlal Nehru
    C) B.R. Ambedkar
    D) Sardar Patel
  6. Which planet is known as the “Red Planet”?
    A) Venus
    B) Mars
    C) Jupiter
    D) Mercury
  7. The Prime Minister of India resides at:
    A) 7, Lok Kalyan Marg, New Delhi
    B) 10, Janpath, New Delhi
    C) Rashtrapati Bhavan
    D) Parliament House
  8. National Science Day in India is celebrated on:
    A) 28 February
    B) 11 February
    C) 15 March
    D) 5 June
  9. Who is known as the “Missile Man of India”?
    A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
    B) Vikram Sarabhai
    C) Homi Bhabha
    D) C.V. Raman
  10. The currency of Japan is:
    A) Yen
    B) Yuan
    C) Ringgit
    D) Won
  11. Which gas is used in electric bulbs to prevent filament burning?
    A) Hydrogen
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Helium
    D) Argon
  12. The national bird of India is:
    A) Peacock
    B) Eagle
    C) Swan
    D) Parrot
  13. Who discovered Penicillin?
    A) Alexander Fleming
    B) Louis Pasteur
    C) Robert Koch
    D) Marie Curie
  14. Which state in India is the largest by area?
    A) Maharashtra
    B) Madhya Pradesh
    C) Rajasthan
    D) Uttar Pradesh
  15. The first Indian woman to go to space is:
    A) Sunita Williams
    B) Kalpana Chawla
    C) K. Radhakrishnan
    D) Ritu Karidhal
  16. The chemical formula of water is:
    A) H2O2
    B) H2O
    C) CO2
    D) HO2
  17. Which of the following is a non-metal?
    A) Sodium
    B) Iron
    C) Sulphur
    D) Copper
  18. The headquarters of the United Nations is located in:
    A) Geneva
    B) Paris
    C) New York
    D) London
  19. Which one is the largest organ in the human body?
    A) Heart
    B) Liver
    C) Skin
    D) Lungs
  20. Which Indian state is famous for the backwaters?
    A) Kerala
    B) Goa
    C) Tamil Nadu
    D) Karnataka
  21. Who was the first President of India?
    A) Jawaharlal Nehru
    B) Rajendra Prasad
    C) S. Radhakrishnan
    D) C. Rajagopalachari
  22. The speed of light in vacuum is approximately:
    A) 3 × 10^8 m/s
    B) 3 × 10^6 m/s
    C) 1.5 × 10^8 m/s
    D) 3 × 10^5 km/s
  23. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?
    A) Mercury
    B) Iron
    C) Copper
    D) Aluminium
  24. The first Five-Year Plan in India was launched in:
    A) 1947
    B) 1951
    C) 1956
    D) 1961
  25. Which is the smallest planet in our solar system?
    A) Mercury
    B) Mars
    C) Venus
    D) Neptune

SECTION 3: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (51–75)

  1. A number increased by 20% becomes 240. What is the original number?
    A) 200
    B) 180
    C) 220
    D) 210
  2. The ratio of two numbers is 3:5 and their sum is 64. Find the larger number.
    A) 24
    B) 40
    C) 48
    D) 36
  3. Simple Interest on ₹2000 at 5% per annum for 3 years = ?
    A) 300
    B) 350
    C) 400
    D) 450
  4. If sin θ = 1/2, then θ = ?
    A) 30°
    B) 45°
    C) 60°
    D) 90°
  5. A train 100 m long crosses a pole in 5 seconds. Find its speed in km/h.
    A) 72 km/h
    B) 60 km/h
    C) 54 km/h
    D) 90 km/h
  6. A shopkeeper sells an article for ₹600 at a loss of 20%. Find the cost price.
    A) ₹700
    B) ₹750
    C) ₹720
    D) ₹800
  7. If 25% of a number is 60, what is the number?
    A) 200
    B) 240
    C) 150
    D) 180
  8. A can complete a work in 12 days and B in 16 days. Working together, they will complete it in:
    A) 6 days
    B) 7 days
    C) 8 days
    D) 9 days
  9. A cylinder has radius 7 cm and height 10 cm. Find its volume (π = 22/7).
    A) 1540 cm³
    B) 1450 cm³
    C) 154 cm³
    D) 770 cm³
  10. If a number is divisible by both 12 and 15, then it is definitely divisible by:
    A) 30
    B) 60
    C) 20
    D) 12
  11. A man borrows ₹5000 at 10% simple interest per annum. Interest for 2 years = ?
    A) ₹1000
    B) ₹1100
    C) ₹1200
    D) ₹1500
  12. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on ₹5000 at 10% per annum for 2 years = ?
    A) ₹25
    B) ₹50
    C) ₹45
    D) ₹55
  13. 3/4 of a number is 90. Find 5/6 of the same number.
    A) 100
    B) 95
    C) 90
    D) 120
  14. A box contains 4 red, 5 green, and 6 blue balls. One ball is picked at random. Probability of picking a green ball = ?
    A) 5/15
    B) 1/3
    C) 2/5
    D) 3/5
  15. A car travels 120 km in 2 hours. Speed = ?
    A) 50 km/h
    B) 60 km/h
    C) 65 km/h
    D) 70 km/h
  16. Find the simple interest on ₹8000 at 12% per annum for 3 years.
    A) ₹2880
    B) ₹3200
    C) ₹2800
    D) ₹3000
  17. The HCF of 36 and 60 = ?
    A) 6
    B) 12
    C) 18
    D) 24
  18. If x + y = 10 and xy = 21, find x² + y² = ?
    A) 49
    B) 79
    C) 100
    D) 121
  19. Solve: (3/4) ÷ (2/5) = ?
    A) 15/8
    B) 8/15
    C) 5/6
    D) 6/5
  20. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by reversing its digits is 27. If the tens digit is greater, the number is:
    A) 54
    B) 63
    C) 72
    D) 81
  21. A and B can do a work in 15 and 20 days respectively. They work alternately, starting with A. Total work = 60 units. How many days to finish the work?
    A) 10
    B) 11
    C) 12
    D) 13
  22. The compound interest on ₹5000 for 2 years at 10% per annum = ?
    A) ₹1050
    B) ₹1100
    C) ₹1025
    D) ₹1000
  23. If 7/8 of a number is 56, the number = ?
    A) 64
    B) 60
    C) 70
    D) 63
  24. A man buys an article for ₹1200 and sells it for ₹1500. Profit% = ?
    A) 15%
    B) 20%
    C) 25%
    D) 30%
  25. A train 150 m long passes a platform of 200 m in 25 seconds. Speed of the train = ?
    A) 36 km/h
    B) 54 km/h
    C) 63 km/h
    D) 50 km/h

SECTION 4: ENGLISH COMPREHENSION (76–100)

  1. Choose the synonym of “Abundant”:
    A) Scarce
    B) Plenty
    C) Rare
    D) Little
  2. Choose the antonym of “Optimistic”:
    A) Hopeful
    B) Cheerful
    C) Pessimistic
    D) Positive
  3. Fill in the blank:
    She has been working here ____ 2015.
    A) since
    B) for
    C) from
    D) by
  4. Spot the error:
    He don’t like coffee.
    A) He
    B) don’t
    C) like
    D) coffee
  5. Choose the correct spelling:
    A) Accomodation
    B) Accommodation
    C) Acommodation
    D) Accommadation
  6. Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: “Break the ice”
    A) To start a conversation
    B) To shatter something
    C) To cause trouble
    D) To finish work
  7. Fill in the blank:
    I look forward ____ your reply.
    A) to
    B) for
    C) at
    D) on
  8. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to “Scarcity”:
    A) Shortage
    B) Plenty
    C) Poverty
    D) Famine
  9. Correct the sentence:
    She don’t want to go.
    A) She doesn’t want to go.
    B) She not wants to go.
    C) She not want to go.
    D) She didn’t want to go.
  10. Select the correctly punctuated sentence:
    A) He said “I am coming”.
    B) He said, “I am coming.”
    C) He said I am coming.
    D) He said “I am coming.”
  11. Find the error:
    Neither of the boys were at school.
    A) Neither
    B) of the boys
    C) were
    D) at school
  12. Synonym of “Impartial”:
    A) Biased
    B) Fair
    C) Unfair
    D) Partial
  13. Fill in the blank:
    He is good ____ mathematics.
    A) at
    B) in
    C) on
    D) for
  14. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to “Generous”:
    A) Selfish
    B) Kind
    C) Noble
    D) Altruistic
  15. Find the correctly spelled word:
    A) Recieve
    B) Receive
    C) Receeve
    D) Recieeve
  16. Correct the sentence:
    She suggested me to take rest.
    A) She suggested me to take rest.
    B) She suggested that I take rest.
    C) She suggested me taking rest.
    D) She suggest me take rest.
  17. Synonym of “Eloquent”:
    A) Fluent
    B) Silent
    C) Hesitant
    D) Shy
  18. Choose the correct preposition:
    He is married ____ a doctor.
    A) with
    B) to
    C) by
    D) at
  19. Fill in the blank:
    If I ____ more time, I would have finished the work.
    A) had
    B) have
    C) has
    D) having
  20. Spot the error:
    She enjoys to read books.
    A) She
    B) enjoys
    C) to read
    D) books
  21. Choose the antonym of “Complex”:
    A) Complicated
    B) Simple
    C) Intricate
    D) Difficult
  22. Fill in the blank:
    He is accused ____ theft.
    A) of
    B) for
    C) with
    D) on
  23. Correct the sentence:
    I have seen him yesterday.
    A) I have seen him yesterday.
    B) I saw him yesterday.
    C) I had seen him yesterday.
    D) I seeing him yesterday.
  24. Choose the word which is closest in meaning to “Meticulous”:
    A) Careless
    B) Precise
    C) Hasty
    D) Reckless
  25. Fill in the blank:
    She didn’t go to the party, ____ she was tired.
    A) because
    B) although
    C) but
    D) and

Answer

Question No.Correct Option
1D
2C
3A
4D
5B
6A
7A
8A
9C
10B
11C
12C
13C
14B
15A
16B
17B
18B
19D
20A
21C
22A
23C
24A
25A

Question No.Correct Option
26B
27B
28B
29C
30B
31B
32A
33B
34A
35A
36D
37A
38A
39C
40B
41B
42C
43C
44C
45A
46B
47A
48A
49B
50A

Question No.Correct Option
51A
52C
53A
54A
55A
56B
57B
58C
59A
60B
61A
62B
63D
64B
65B
66A
67B
68B
69A
70C
71C
72B
73A
74B
75B

Question No.Correct Option
76B
77C
78A
79B
80B
81A
82A
83B
84A
85B
86C
87B
88A
89A
90B
91B
92A
93B
94A
95C
96B
97A
98B
99B
100C