Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants – MCQs
Structure of Flower
Q1. The reproductive organ of flowering plants is:
A. Root
B. Flower
C. Stem
D. Leaf
Q2. A typical flower consists of:
A. Four whorls
B. Three whorls
C. Five whorls
D. Two whorls
Q3. The four floral whorls are:
A. Calyx, corolla, androecium, gynoecium
B. Sepal, petal, root, leaf
C. Stem, leaf, flower, fruit
D. Root, stem, leaf, flower
Q4. The male reproductive part of flower is:
A. Gynoecium
B. Pistil
C. Androecium
D. Ovule
Q5. The female reproductive part of flower is:
A. Stamen
B. Androecium
C. Gynoecium
D. Petal
Q6. A stamen consists of:
A. Anther and filament
B. Ovary and style
C. Sepal and petal
D. Stigma and ovule
Microsporogenesis
Q7. Formation of pollen grains occurs in:
A. Ovary
B. Anther
C. Stigma
D. Style
Q8. The anther usually has:
A. One lobe
B. Two lobes
C. Three lobes
D. Four lobes
Q9. Each anther lobe contains:
A. One pollen sac
B. Two pollen sacs
C. Four pollen sacs
D. Eight pollen sacs
Q10. Microsporogenesis is the process of:
A. Formation of microspores
B. Formation of megaspores
C. Formation of ovule
D. Formation of embryo
Q11. Microspore mother cells undergo:
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Binary fission
D. Budding
Q12. Each microspore mother cell produces:
A. Two microspores
B. Four microspores
C. Eight microspores
D. Sixteen microspores
Male Gametophyte
Q13. Pollen grain represents:
A. Male gametophyte
B. Female gametophyte
C. Sporophyte
D. Embryo
Q14. The outer wall of pollen grain is called:
A. Intine
B. Exine
C. Sporoderm
D. Cuticle
Q15. Exine is made up of:
A. Sporopollenin
B. Cellulose
C. Lignin
D. Chitin
Q16. The inner wall of pollen grain is called:
A. Exine
B. Intine
C. Sporopollenin
D. Endine
Q17. Mature pollen grain generally contains:
A. One cell
B. Two cells
C. Three cells
D. Four cells
Q18. The generative cell forms:
A. Egg cells
B. Two male gametes
C. Synergids
D. Polar nuclei
Megasporogenesis
Q19. Formation of megaspores occurs in:
A. Ovule
B. Anther
C. Pollen sac
D. Stigma
Q20. The ovule is attached to placenta by:
A. Style
B. Funicle
C. Micropyle
D. Chalaza
Q21. Megaspore mother cell undergoes:
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Binary fission
D. Budding
Q22. Each megaspore mother cell produces:
A. Four megaspores
B. Two megaspores
C. One megaspore
D. Eight megaspores
Q23. Usually only how many megaspores remain functional?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Female Gametophyte
Q24. Female gametophyte is called:
A. Embryo sac
B. Ovule
C. Pollen grain
D. Fruit
Q25. Typical embryo sac contains:
A. Six cells and eight nuclei
B. Seven cells and eight nuclei
C. Eight cells and eight nuclei
D. Seven cells and seven nuclei
Q26. Egg apparatus consists of:
A. One egg cell and two synergids
B. Two egg cells
C. Three synergids
D. Two polar nuclei
Q27. The synergids help in:
A. Pollen tube guidance
B. Seed formation
C. Fruit formation
D. Pollination
Q28. Polar nuclei are located in:
A. Micropylar end
B. Chalazal end
C. Central cell
D. Ovary wall
Pollination
Q29. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma is called:
A. Fertilization
B. Pollination
C. Germination
D. Germplasm
Q30. Pollination within the same flower is called:
A. Autogamy
B. Xenogamy
C. Geitonogamy
D. Cross fertilization
Q31. Pollination between different flowers of same plant:
A. Autogamy
B. Geitonogamy
C. Xenogamy
D. Hybridization
Q32. Pollination between different plants is:
A. Autogamy
B. Xenogamy
C. Geitonogamy
D. Self pollination
Q33. Pollination by wind is called:
A. Entomophily
B. Anemophily
C. Hydrophily
D. Ornithophily
Q34. Pollination by insects is called:
A. Entomophily
B. Hydrophily
C. Anemophily
D. Zoophily
Outbreeding Devices
Q35. Outbreeding devices prevent:
A. Cross pollination
B. Self pollination
C. Fertilization
D. Fruit formation
Q36. When pollen release and stigma receptivity occur at different times:
A. Dichogamy
B. Herkogamy
C. Self incompatibility
D. Apomixis
Q37. Physical barrier between anther and stigma is called:
A. Herkogamy
B. Dichogamy
C. Polyembryony
D. Apomixis
Pollen–Pistil Interaction
Q38. After pollination, pollen grain germinates on:
A. Anther
B. Stigma
C. Ovary
D. Style
Q39. Pollen tube grows through:
A. Ovary
B. Style
C. Petal
D. Sepal
Q40. Pollen tube enters ovule through:
A. Chalaza
B. Micropyle
C. Funicle
D. Placenta
Double Fertilization
Q41. Double fertilization is characteristic of:
A. Gymnosperms
B. Angiosperms
C. Bryophytes
D. Pteridophytes
Q42. Fusion of male gamete with egg forms:
A. Zygote
B. Endosperm
C. Ovule
D. Fruit
Q43. Fusion of second male gamete with polar nuclei forms:
A. Zygote
B. Endosperm
C. Embryo
D. Seed coat
Q44. Fusion of male gamete with egg is called:
A. Syngamy
B. Triple fusion
C. Pollination
D. Germination
Post-Fertilization
Q45. Zygote develops into:
A. Embryo
B. Endosperm
C. Fruit
D. Ovule
Q46. Ovule develops into:
A. Fruit
B. Seed
C. Embryo
D. Flower
Q47. Ovary develops into:
A. Seed
B. Fruit
C. Embryo
D. Endosperm
Seed and Fruit
Q48. Seed coat develops from:
A. Integuments
B. Ovary
C. Embryo
D. Endosperm
Q49. The food storage tissue in seeds is:
A. Endosperm
B. Embryo
C. Ovary
D. Stigma
Q50. The embryonic shoot is called:
A. Radicle
B. Plumule
C. Cotyledon
D. Hypocotyl
Apomixis & Polyembryony
Q51. Formation of seeds without fertilization is called:
A. Apomixis
B. Polyembryony
C. Parthenogenesis
D. Germination
Q52. Polyembryony means:
A. One embryo per seed
B. Multiple embryos per seed
C. No embryo
D. Two seeds per fruit
Q53. Apomixis is important in:
A. Hybrid seed production
B. Preventing seed formation
C. Pollination
D. Fertilization
NCERT Based Concept Questions
Q54. Coconut water represents:
A. Free nuclear endosperm
B. Cellular endosperm
C. Embryo
D. Seed coat
Q55. The edible part of coconut is:
A. Endosperm
B. Embryo
C. Ovule
D. Seed coat
Q56. In orchids, pollination occurs mainly by:
A. Wind
B. Water
C. Insects
D. Birds
Q57. Hydrophily occurs in:
A. Vallisneria
B. Mango
C. Sunflower
D. Wheat
Q58. Wind pollinated flowers usually have:
A. Bright petals
B. Nectar
C. Light pollen grains
D. Fragrance
Advanced NEET Concepts
Q59. Pollen viability depends on:
A. Temperature and humidity
B. Soil type
C. Root pressure
D. Photosynthesis
Q60. Pollen grains are preserved as:
A. Pollen banks
B. Seed banks
C. Gene banks
D. Tissue culture
Q61. Artificial hybridization requires:
A. Emasculation
B. Bagging
C. Controlled pollination
D. All of the above
Q62. Removal of anthers from bisexual flower is called:
A. Bagging
B. Emasculation
C. Pollination
D. Fertilization
Q63. Covering emasculated flower with bag is:
A. Pollination
B. Bagging
C. Fertilization
D. Germination
Q64. Pollen grains are rich in:
A. Proteins
B. Vitamins
C. Minerals
D. All of the above
Q65. Pollen tablets are used as:
A. Food supplements
B. Fertilizers
C. Hormones
D. Antibiotics
Q66. Pollen tube releases:
A. One male gamete
B. Two male gametes
C. Three male gametes
D. Four male gametes
Q67. The micropyle allows entry of:
A. Water and pollen tube
B. Oxygen only
C. Nutrients only
D. Sugar only
Q68. In angiosperms, endosperm is usually:
A. Triploid
B. Haploid
C. Diploid
D. Tetraploid
Q69. Triple fusion results in formation of:
A. Zygote
B. Primary endosperm nucleus
C. Ovule
D. Seed coat
Q70. Double fertilization was discovered by:
A. Strasburger
B. Nawaschin
C. Mendel
D. Darwin
Assertion–Reason MCQs
(Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants)
Directions:
A. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D. Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
Q1
Assertion: Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of angiosperms.
Reason: Two male gametes participate in fertilization events.
Q2
Assertion: Sporopollenin makes pollen grains highly resistant.
Reason: Sporopollenin is one of the most chemically inert biological polymers.
Q3
Assertion: Mature embryo sac is typically 7-celled and 8-nucleate.
Reason: During megagametogenesis, one functional megaspore undergoes three mitotic divisions.
Q4
Assertion: Geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination but genetically self-pollination.
Reason: Pollen grains are transferred between flowers of the same plant.
Q5
Assertion: Pollen grains of wind-pollinated plants are produced in very large numbers.
Reason: Probability of successful pollination is low in wind pollination.
Q6
Assertion: Apomixis can help maintain hybrid vigor.
Reason: Apomixis produces seeds without fertilization.
Q7
Assertion: Endosperm in angiosperms is usually triploid.
Reason: It forms by fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei.
Q8
Assertion: Self-incompatibility prevents inbreeding in flowering plants.
Reason: It inhibits pollen germination or pollen tube growth on the stigma.
Q9
Assertion: Synergids help in guiding the pollen tube.
Reason: They possess a special structure called filiform apparatus.
Q10
Assertion: Vallisneria shows hydrophily.
Reason: Pollination occurs through water currents.
Q11
Assertion: Pollen viability depends on environmental conditions.
Reason: Temperature and humidity influence pollen survival.
Q12
Assertion: Coconut water is free nuclear endosperm.
Reason: In free nuclear endosperm, nuclear divisions occur without cytokinesis.
Q13
Assertion: Bagging is done during artificial hybridization.
Reason: Bagging prevents contamination from unwanted pollen.
Q14
Assertion: Removal of anthers before maturity is called emasculation.
Reason: Emasculation prevents self-pollination.
Q15
Assertion: Polyembryony results in more than one embryo in a seed.
Reason: It may occur due to development of embryos from nucellar cells.
Extra 30 Difficult NEET-Level MCQs
(Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants)
Q1
Which cell of the embryo sac is diploid?
A. Egg cell
B. Synergid
C. Central cell
D. Antipodal cell
Q2
The ploidy of primary endosperm nucleus is:
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Triploid
D. Tetraploid
Q3
The edible part of coconut is:
A. Endosperm
B. Embryo
C. Cotyledon
D. Seed coat
Q4
Which of the following is NOT an outbreeding device?
A. Dichogamy
B. Herkogamy
C. Self incompatibility
D. Autogamy
Q5
Pollen tube enters ovule through:
A. Chalaza
B. Micropyle
C. Integument
D. Funicle
Q6
Which part of ovule develops into seed coat?
A. Chalaza
B. Integuments
C. Funicle
D. Micropyle
Q7
Which of the following plants shows hydrophily?
A. Vallisneria
B. Sunflower
C. Mango
D. Hibiscus
Q8
Triple fusion results in formation of:
A. Zygote
B. Primary endosperm nucleus
C. Ovule
D. Embryo sac
Q9
Which of the following pollination types always results in genetic recombination?
A. Autogamy
B. Geitonogamy
C. Xenogamy
D. Self pollination
Q10
Megasporogenesis occurs in:
A. Ovary
B. Ovule
C. Anther
D. Pollen grain
Q11
Number of nuclei in mature embryo sac:
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Q12
Number of cells in mature embryo sac:
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Q13
Which part of flower receives pollen grains?
A. Style
B. Ovary
C. Stigma
D. Ovule
Q14
Which structure attracts pollen tube?
A. Synergid
B. Antipodal
C. Egg cell
D. Central cell
Q15
Which tissue provides nourishment to developing embryo?
A. Ovule
B. Endosperm
C. Ovary
D. Integument
Q16
Which is NOT a pollinating agent?
A. Wind
B. Water
C. Insects
D. Roots
Q17
Which process produces genetically identical seeds?
A. Fertilization
B. Apomixis
C. Pollination
D. Germination
Q18
Which cell forms male gametes?
A. Vegetative cell
B. Generative cell
C. Tube cell
D. Sporogenous cell
Q19
The micropyle allows entry of:
A. Pollen tube
B. Water
C. Air
D. Nutrients
Q20
Which of the following is wind-pollinated?
A. Wheat
B. Sunflower
C. Hibiscus
D. Rose
Q21
Which structure develops into fruit?
A. Ovule
B. Ovary
C. Embryo
D. Endosperm
Q22
Which cell of embryo sac is involved in fertilization?
A. Egg cell
B. Synergid
C. Antipodal
D. All
Q23
Which of the following is diploid after fertilization?
A. Endosperm
B. Embryo
C. Antipodal
D. Synergid
Q24
Which process ensures cross-pollination?
A. Self incompatibility
B. Apomixis
C. Polyembryony
D. Germination
Q25
Which layer protects pollen grain from environmental damage?
A. Intine
B. Exine
C. Cell membrane
D. Cytoplasm
Q26
Pollination by birds is called:
A. Entomophily
B. Ornithophily
C. Anemophily
D. Hydrophily
Q27
Which hormone is involved in fruit development?
A. Auxin
B. Cytokinin
C. Ethylene
D. Abscisic acid
Q28
Which structure connects ovule to placenta?
A. Chalaza
B. Funicle
C. Micropyle
D. Hilum
Q29
Which cell degenerates after fertilization?
A. Egg cell
B. Synergids
C. Polar nuclei
D. Zygote
Q30
Which process produces embryo without fertilization?
A. Apomixis
B. Fertilization
C. Pollination
D. Germination
Answer key for the 70 MCQs on Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants.
| Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | 18 | B | 35 | B | 52 | B |
| 2 | A | 19 | A | 36 | A | 53 | B |
| 3 | A | 20 | B | 37 | A | 54 | A |
| 4 | A | 21 | B | 38 | B | 55 | A |
| 5 | C | 22 | A | 39 | B | 56 | C |
| 6 | A | 23 | A | 40 | B | 57 | A |
| 7 | B | 24 | A | 41 | B | 58 | A |
| 8 | A | 25 | B | 42 | A | 59 | A |
| 9 | A | 26 | A | 43 | B | 60 | A |
| 10 | B | 27 | A | 44 | A | 61 | D |
| 11 | A | 28 | C | 45 | A | 62 | B |
| 12 | B | 29 | B | 46 | B | 63 | B |
| 13 | D | 30 | A | 47 | B | 64 | D |
| 14 | A | 31 | C | 48 | B | 65 | D |
| 15 | B | 32 | B | 49 | A | 66 | B |
| 16 | B | 33 | B | 50 | B | 67 | A |
| 17 | A | 34 | A | 51 | A | 68 | B |
| 18 | B | 35 | B | 52 | B | 69 | B |
| 70 | B |
Answers with Explanations
Assertion–Reason MCQs
Q1.
Answer: A
Explanation: Double fertilization is unique to angiosperms where two male gametes participate—one fuses with the egg (syngamy) and the other with polar nuclei (triple fusion).
Q2.
Answer: A
Explanation: Sporopollenin forms the outer wall (exine) of pollen grains and is highly resistant to chemicals, enzymes, and high temperatures.
Q3.
Answer: A
Explanation: The functional megaspore undergoes three mitotic divisions, producing 8 nuclei arranged into 7 cells in the mature embryo sac.
Q4.
Answer: B
Explanation: In geitonogamy, pollen transfer occurs between flowers of the same plant, so genetically it is self-pollination but functionally it requires a pollinating agent like cross-pollination.
Q5.
Answer: A
Explanation: Wind pollination has a low success rate, so plants produce large quantities of pollen grains to increase chances of fertilization.
Q6.
Answer: A
Explanation: Apomixis produces seeds without fertilization, so desirable hybrid characters can be preserved for generations.
Q7.
Answer: A
Explanation: The primary endosperm nucleus is formed by triple fusion, making the endosperm usually triploid (3n).
Q8.
Answer: A
Explanation: Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism that prevents pollen germination or pollen tube growth, thereby avoiding inbreeding.
Q9.
Answer: A
Explanation: Synergids contain the filiform apparatus, which helps guide the pollen tube toward the egg cell.
Q10.
Answer: A
Explanation: In Vallisneria, pollination occurs through water currents, a process known as hydrophily.
Q11.
Answer: A
Explanation: Temperature and humidity affect pollen viability, influencing how long pollen grains remain capable of fertilization.
Q12.
Answer: A
Explanation: In free nuclear endosperm, nuclei divide repeatedly without cell wall formation. Coconut water is an example.
Q13.
Answer: A
Explanation: Bagging covers the emasculated flower to prevent unwanted pollen from entering during artificial hybridization.
Q14.
Answer: A
Explanation: Emasculation involves removing anthers before pollen release to prevent self-pollination.
Q15.
Answer: A
Explanation: Polyembryony occurs when more than one embryo develops in a seed, sometimes from nucellar cells.
Answers with Explanations
30 Difficult NEET-Level MCQs
Q1.
Answer: C – Central cell
Explanation: The central cell contains two polar nuclei which fuse with a male gamete to form the triploid primary endosperm nucleus.
Q2.
Answer: C – Triploid
Explanation: Endosperm forms by triple fusion (n + n + n).
Q3.
Answer: A – Endosperm
Explanation: The white edible portion of coconut is cellular endosperm.
Q4.
Answer: D – Autogamy
Explanation: Autogamy is self-pollination within the same flower, not an outbreeding mechanism.
Q5.
Answer: B – Micropyle
Explanation: The pollen tube usually enters the ovule through the micropyle.
Q6.
Answer: B – Integuments
Explanation: Integuments of the ovule develop into the seed coat (testa and tegmen).
Q7.
Answer: A – Vallisneria
Explanation: Vallisneria is a classic example of water pollination.
Q8.
Answer: B – Primary endosperm nucleus
Explanation: Triple fusion produces the primary endosperm nucleus.
Q9.
Answer: C – Xenogamy
Explanation: Xenogamy involves pollen transfer between different plants, producing genetic variation.
Q10.
Answer: B – Ovule
Explanation: Megasporogenesis occurs inside the ovule, forming megaspores.
Q11.
Answer: C – 8 nuclei
Explanation: The mature embryo sac contains 8 nuclei.
Q12.
Answer: B – 7 cells
Explanation: The embryo sac has 7 cells (egg, 2 synergids, 3 antipodals, and central cell).
Q13.
Answer: C – Stigma
Explanation: The stigma is the receptive surface where pollen grains land.
Q14.
Answer: A – Synergid
Explanation: Synergids help attract the pollen tube using the filiform apparatus.
Q15.
Answer: B – Endosperm
Explanation: Endosperm provides nutrition to the developing embryo.
Q16.
Answer: D – Roots
Explanation: Pollination agents include wind, water, insects, birds, but not roots.
Q17.
Answer: B – Apomixis
Explanation: Apomixis forms seeds without fertilization, producing clones.
Q18.
Answer: B – Generative cell
Explanation: The generative cell divides to produce two male gametes.
Q19.
Answer: A – Pollen tube
Explanation: The micropyle is the entry point for the pollen tube into the ovule.
Q20.
Answer: A – Wheat
Explanation: Wheat is wind-pollinated (anemophily).
Q21.
Answer: B – Ovary
Explanation: After fertilization, the ovary develops into fruit.
Q22.
Answer: A – Egg cell
Explanation: The egg cell fuses with one male gamete to form the zygote.
Q23.
Answer: B – Embryo
Explanation: The embryo formed from the zygote is diploid (2n).
Q24.
Answer: A – Self incompatibility
Explanation: Self-incompatibility prevents fertilization by genetically similar pollen.
Q25.
Answer: B – Exine
Explanation: Exine contains sporopollenin, providing strong protection.
Q26.
Answer: B – Ornithophily
Explanation: Pollination by birds is known as ornithophily.
Q27.
Answer: A – Auxin
Explanation: Auxin plays a major role in fruit development and growth.
Q28.
Answer: B – Funicle
Explanation: The funicle attaches the ovule to the placenta.
Q29.
Answer: B – Synergids
Explanation: Synergids degenerate after pollen tube entry.
Q30.
Answer: A – Apomixis
Explanation: Apomixis produces embryos without fertilization, forming genetically identical seeds.
Disclaimer:
All MCQs and answers are for educational purposes only. They are based on NCERT and NEET syllabus and do not represent official NEET questions.