- Quantitative Aptitude (30 Qs)
- Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability (30 Qs)
- English Language & Comprehension (30 Qs)
- General Awareness & Current Affairs (30 Qs)
- Odisha-Specific Knowledge & Computer Awareness (30 Qs)
Section 1: Quantitative Aptitude (Q1–30)
Q1.
A train running at 54 km/hr crosses a pole in 20 seconds. What is the length of the train?
A. 300 m
B. 250 m
C. 280 m
D. 320 m
Q2.
The average of 5 consecutive even numbers is 36. What is the largest number?
A. 40
B. 38
C. 42
D. 44
Q3.
A shopkeeper sells an article at a profit of 20%. If the cost price is Rs. 500, the selling price is:
A. 600
B. 620
C. 580
D. 550
Q4.
The ratio of two numbers is 3:4, and their LCM is 240. Their HCF is:
A. 20
B. 30
C. 15
D. 10
Q5.
If 12 men can do a work in 18 days, how many men will be required to complete the work in 12 days?
A. 18
B. 16
C. 20
D. 24
Q6.
The compound interest on Rs. 5000 at 10% per annum for 2 years is:
A. 1050
B. 1100
C. 1200
D. 1150
Q7.
A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. The net change in the number is:
A. 0%
B. 2% decrease
C. 4% decrease
D. 4% increase
Q8.
If 3/4 of a number is 27, then the number is:
A. 36
B. 32
C. 40
D. 30
Q9.
A can do a work in 12 days, B in 16 days. They work together. How many days will they take?
A. 7
B. 6.86
C. 6.8
D. 6.9
Q10.
The simple interest on Rs. 7500 at 8% per annum for 3 years is:
A. 1800
B. 1700
C. 1750
D. 1600
Q11.
The ratio of the ages of A and B is 5:6. After 6 years, the sum of their ages will be 66. The present age of A is:
A. 25
B. 24
C. 20
D. 22
Q12.
A boat goes 20 km downstream in 2 hours and returns upstream in 4 hours. The speed of the stream is:
A. 2 km/hr
B. 3 km/hr
C. 4 km/hr
D. 5 km/hr
Q13.
The difference between the simple and compound interest on Rs. 1000 at 10% for 2 years is:
A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
D. 20
Q14.
The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 75. The largest number is:
A. 27
B. 25
C. 29
D. 31
Q15.
A bag contains 4 red, 5 green, and 6 blue balls. A ball is drawn at random. Probability that it is not green:
A. 5/15
B. 2/3
C. 1/3
D. 3/5
Q16.
The LCM of 12, 18, and 24 is:
A. 72
B. 144
C. 216
D. 36
Q17.
If a number is multiplied by 5/6 and then increased by 12, the result is 42. Find the number:
A. 36
B. 36.8
C. 36.5
D. 35
Q18.
The sum of the squares of two numbers is 85 and their product is 20. The sum of numbers is:
A. 13
B. 12
C. 14
D. 15
Q19.
A and B can do a work in 12 days. B and C can do it in 15 days. A and C can do it in 20 days. How long will A, B, and C together take?
A. 7 days
B. 6 days
C. 5 days
D. 8 days
Q20.
A sum of money doubles itself at simple interest in 12 years. The rate of interest per annum is:
A. 8.33%
B. 9%
C. 10%
D. 12%
Q21.
A shopkeeper sold an article at a profit of 15%. Had he sold it for Rs. 10 more, the profit would have been 20%. The cost price is:
A. 100
B. 120
C. 80
D. 150
Q22.
The perimeter of a rectangle is 60 m and the length is twice the breadth. The area of the rectangle is:
A. 200 m²
B. 150 m²
C. 180 m²
D. 160 m²
Q23.
The sum of first 20 natural numbers divisible by 3 is:
A. 630
B. 640
C. 650
D. 600
Q24.
A shopkeeper buys an article for Rs. 500 and marks it at 600. He allows a discount of 10%. Profit percent is:
A. 8%
B. 9%
C. 10%
D. 12%
Q25.
If the difference between compound interest and simple interest on Rs. 5000 at 10% per annum for 2 years is:
A. 50
B. 25
C. 100
D. 75
Q26.
A bag contains 3 red, 4 white, and 5 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random. Probability that both are black:
A. 5/66
B. 1/6
C. 2/11
D. 5/22
Q27.
If the radius of a circle is increased by 20%, the area increases by:
A. 44%
B. 40%
C. 42%
D. 45%
Q28.
A sum of Rs. 8000 amounts to Rs. 10,240 in 2 years at compound interest. The rate of interest is:
A. 12%
B. 10%
C. 8%
D. 15%
Q29.
The difference between the HCF and LCM of two numbers is 18. If their product is 648, the numbers are:
A. 12, 18
B. 18, 36
C. 12, 24
D. 18, 30
Q30.
A man walks 6 km north, then 8 km east. The distance from starting point is:
A. 10 km
B. 12 km
C. 14 km
D. 15 km
OSSC CGL Preliminary Mock Test – Part 2
Section 2: Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability (Q31–60)
Q31.
Find the missing number:
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
A. 40
B. 42
C. 45
D. 50
Q32.
If A + B means A ÷ B, A – B means A × B, A × B means A + B, then 6 – 3 ÷ 3 × 2 = ?
A. 10
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
Q33.
Find the odd number:
121, 144, 169, 196, 210
A. 144
B. 196
C. 210
D. 169
Q34.
Complete the series:
1, 8, 27, 64, ?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 144
D. 150
Q35.
Pointing to a man, Rahul says, “He is the son of the daughter of my grandfather.” How is the man related to Rahul?
A. Brother
B. Cousin
C. Uncle
D. Nephew
Q36.
Find the missing term:
J, M, P, S, ?
A. U
B. V
C. W
D. X
Q37.
Find the odd pair:
A. Pen – Write
B. Knife – Cut
C. Spoon – Eat
D. Chair – Drink
Q38.
If MONKEY is coded as LJKIXD, how is TIGER coded in the same way?
A. QFDCQ
B. QFCDQ
C. QFDCR
D. QFCRD
Q39.
A man walks 10 km north, 6 km east, 4 km south, and 2 km west. How far is he from the starting point?
A. 10 km
B. 8 km
C. 6 km
D. 12 km
Q40.
Select the number which does NOT belong to the group:
8, 27, 64, 125, 150
A. 8
B. 27
C. 125
D. 150
Q41.
If 3 pencils cost 15 rupees, how much do 8 pencils cost?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 35
D. 50
Q42.
In a code language, “TABLE” is written as “UDCDN”. How is “CHAIR” written?
A. DIBJS
B. DIBKT
C. DJBKT
D. DJBJS
Q43.
Find the next term in the series:
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?
A. 35
B. 37
C. 38
D. 39
Q44.
Ramesh is taller than Suresh but shorter than Mukesh. Mukesh is taller than Ramesh. Who is the shortest?
A. Ramesh
B. Suresh
C. Mukesh
D. Cannot determine
Q45.
Complete the analogy:
Finger : Hand :: Leaf : ?
A. Branch
B. Tree
C. Plant
D. Stem
Q46.
Find the missing number:
5, 25, 125, 625, ?
A. 3125
B. 3500
C. 3000
D. 3150
Q47.
If 7 + 3 = 28, 5 + 4 = 20, then 9 + 6 = ?
A. 45
B. 54
C. 60
D. 63
Q48.
A word is coded as:
BRIGHT → CSJHUI. What is the code for NIGHT?
A. OJHIU
B. OJHIV
C. MJHIU
D. OJHIV
Q49.
Select the number which completes the series:
3, 6, 12, 24, 48, ?
A. 90
B. 96
C. 100
D. 92
Q50.
Find the odd one out:
Dog, Cat, Tiger, Cow
A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Tiger
D. Cow
Q51.
If A is the brother of B, B is the sister of C, and C is the father of D. How is D related to A?
A. Nephew
B. Niece
C. Cousin
D. Cannot say
Q52.
Complete the series:
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, ?
A. 54
B. 56
C. 60
D. 62
Q53.
A word is coded as: SCHOOL → TDPIPM. How is LIBRARY coded?
A. MJCSBSZ
B. MJCBSBZ
C. MJCBTAZ
D. MJCBSCZ
Q54.
Find the next term in the series:
1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
A. 30
B. 36
C. 35
D. 40
Q55.
A is 20 km north of B. C is 15 km east of B. D is 10 km south of C. Distance between A and D?
A. 25 km
B. 30 km
C. 35 km
D. 40 km
Q56.
If PEN = 16, PENCIL = 42, then BOOK = ?
A. 30
B. 28
C. 32
D. 34
Q57.
In a code, 1 = A, 2 = B, …, 26 = Z. If 20-9-7-5-18 is coded, what is the word?
A. TIGER
B. TIGERX
C. TIGEX
D. TIGE
Q58.
A man walks 12 km east, then 5 km south, then 12 km west. How far is he from starting point?
A. 5 km
B. 10 km
C. 12 km
D. 15 km
Q59.
Find the odd pair:
Hammer – Nail, Pen – Paper, Knife – Cut, Spoon – Book
A. Hammer – Nail
B. Pen – Paper
C. Knife – Cut
D. Spoon – Book
Q60.
Complete the analogy:
Bird : Fly :: Fish : ?
A. Swim
B. Dive
C. Jump
D. Glide
Section 3: English Language & Comprehension (Q61–90)
Q61.
Choose the correctly spelled word:
A. Accommodate
B. Acommodate
C. Accomodate
D. Acomodate
Q62.
Fill in the blank with correct preposition:
He is proficient ___ mathematics.
A. at
B. in
C. on
D. with
Q63.
Identify the synonym of Obsolete:
A. Modern
B. Outdated
C. Useful
D. Current
Q64.
Choose the antonym of Vigorous:
A. Weak
B. Strong
C. Robust
D. Active
Q65.
Choose the correct sentence:
A. He don’t like mangoes.
B. He doesn’t like mangoes.
C. He not likes mangoes.
D. He not like mangoes.
Q66.
Fill in the blank:
Neither of the boys ___ present in the class.
A. is
B. are
C. were
D. be
Q67.
Identify the correct transformation of the sentence:
“Ramesh said to me, ‘I will come tomorrow.’”
A. Ramesh told me that he will come tomorrow.
B. Ramesh told me that he would come the next day.
C. Ramesh said to me that he will come tomorrow.
D. Ramesh told me he will come tomorrow.
Q68.
Choose the word which can replace the underlined word:
The teacher was elated by the student’s performance.
A. Sad
B. Happy
C. Angry
D. Confused
Q69.
Choose the correct option to complete the sentence:
He ___ to the market when it started raining.
A. goes
B. went
C. was going
D. is going
Q70.
Find the correctly punctuated sentence:
A. What is your name?
B. What is your name.
C. What is your name!
D. What is your name,
Q71.
Select the correctly spelled word:
A. Harass
B. Harrass
C. Harres
D. Haraas
Q72.
Fill in the blank with correct article:
She is ___ honest woman.
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article
Q73.
Identify the synonym of Meticulous:
A. Careless
B. Thorough
C. Lazy
D. Rough
Q74.
Choose the antonym of Transparent:
A. Opaque
B. Clear
C. Lucid
D. Crystal
Q75.
Identify the correct passive form:
“People speak English all over the world.”
A. English is spoken by people all over the world.
B. English was spoken by people all over the world.
C. English spoken by people all over the world.
D. English is speaked by people all over the world.
Q76.
Select the correct plural form:
Cactus
A. Cactuses
B. Cacti
C. Cactae
D. Cactus
Q77.
Choose the correctly spelled word:
A. Occurrence
B. Ocurrence
C. Occurence
D. Occurancce
Q78.
Fill in the blank:
He is the most talented student ___ the class.
A. in
B. of
C. at
D. for
Q79.
Identify the error in the sentence:
She suggested me to take rest.
A. suggested → suggested that
B. me → I
C. take → took
D. rest → resting
Q80.
Choose the correct option:
The doctor advised him ___ less sugar.
A. eat
B. to eat
C. eating
D. eats
Q81.
Select the word closest in meaning to Benevolent:
A. Kind
B. Cruel
C. Angry
D. Selfish
Q82.
Fill in the blank:
I have been waiting here ___ morning.
A. since
B. for
C. during
D. at
Q83.
Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:
A. He said “I am tired.”
B. He said, I am tired.
C. He said, “I am tired.”
D. He said “I am tired”,
Q84.
Identify the synonym of Adversity:
A. Misfortune
B. Fortune
C. Luck
D. Happiness
Q85.
Choose the correct form of verb:
Either my mother or my sisters ___ going to the party.
A. is
B. are
C. am
D. be
Q86.
Complete the analogy:
Book : Read :: Knife : ?
A. Cut
B. Write
C. Eat
D. Chop
Q87.
Choose the correct sentence:
A. She has visited Paris last year.
B. She visited Paris last year.
C. She visits Paris last year.
D. She had visits Paris last year.
Q88.
Select the correct antonym of Scarce:
A. Rare
B. Abundant
C. Little
D. Insufficient
Q89.
Fill in the blank:
He didn’t come, ___ he was invited.
A. because
B. although
C. since
D. whereas
Q90.
Identify the error in the sentence:
Neither of the boys are present today.
A. Neither → Each
B. are → is
C. boys → boys’
D. present → presents
Section 4: General Awareness & Current Affairs (Q91–120)
Q91.
Who is the current Chief Minister of Odisha?
A. Naveen Patnaik
B. Dharmendra Pradhan
C. Pinaki Mishra
D. Pramila Mallick
Q92.
Which river is known as the “Sorrow of Odisha”?
A. Mahanadi
B. Brahmani
C. Baitarani
D. Subarnarekha
Q93.
Odisha became a separate province in which year?
A. 1936
B. 1947
C. 1950
D. 1935
Q94.
What is the capital of Odisha?
A. Cuttack
B. Bhubaneswar
C. Puri
D. Rourkela
Q95.
Which Odisha festival is famous for the chariot procession of Lord Jagannath?
A. Raja
B. Ratha Yatra
C. Bali Jatra
D. Durga Puja
Q96.
Who is known as the “Iron Man of India”?
A. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B. Subhash Chandra Bose
C. Biju Patnaik
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Q97.
What is the national animal of India?
A. Lion
B. Tiger
C. Elephant
D. Leopard
Q98.
Which country launched the Chandrayaan-3 mission?
A. USA
B. Russia
C. India
D. Japan
Q99.
Who was the first President of India?
A. Rajendra Prasad
B. S. Radhakrishnan
C. Zakir Husain
D. V.V. Giri
Q100.
Which Odisha beach is famous for its sand dunes and turtle nesting?
A. Puri Beach
B. Chandrabhaga Beach
C. Gopalpur Beach
D. Konark Beach
Q101.
Who is known as the “Missile Man of India”?
A. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
B. Vikram Sarabhai
C. Homi Bhabha
D. Satish Dhawan
Q102.
Which of the following is the highest peak in Odisha?
A. Deomali
B. Chandragiri
C. Khandagiri
D. Hirakud
Q103.
Which Odisha city is famous for the Hirakud Dam?
A. Sambalpur
B. Bhubaneswar
C. Cuttack
D. Rourkela
Q104.
Which Odisha tribal dance is performed during the harvest festival of Raja?
A. Dalkhai
B. Ghumura
C. Chhau
D. Jhumar
Q105.
Who is the current Governor of Odisha?
A. Ganeshi Lal
B. S.C. Jamir
C. Ashok Gehlot
D. Biswa Bhusan Harichandan
Q106.
Which Odisha river originates from the Amravati hills of Chhattisgarh?
A. Mahanadi
B. Brahmani
C. Baitarani
D. Subarnarekha
Q107.
Which Odisha festival is celebrated to honor the Sun God?
A. Raja
B. Chhath Puja
C. Durga Puja
D. Bali Jatra
Q108.
Who was the first Prime Minister of India?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Rajendra Prasad
Q109.
Which Indian state has the largest coastline?
A. Odisha
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Gujarat
D. Andhra Pradesh
Q110.
Which Odisha port is the largest in terms of cargo handling?
A. Paradeep Port
B. Gopalpur Port
C. Dhamra Port
D. Subarnarekha Port
Q111.
The Konark Sun Temple was built in which century?
A. 12th century
B. 13th century
C. 14th century
D. 11th century
Q112.
Which Odisha leader is known for the Kalinga movement during the independence struggle?
A. Biju Patnaik
B. Lingaraj Mishra
C. Utkalmani Gopabandhu Das
D. Harekrushna Mahatab
Q113.
Which national park in Odisha is famous for its tiger reserve?
A. Simlipal
B. Bhitarkanika
C. Chilika
D. Satkosia
Q114.
Which Odisha lake is famous for migratory birds?
A. Chilika Lake
B. Anshupa Lake
C. Hirakud Lake
D. Kanjia Lake
Q115.
Who won the Nobel Prize in Literature from India?
A. Rabindranath Tagore
B. C.V. Raman
C. Hargobind Khorana
D. Amartya Sen
Q116.
Which Indian state recently launched the “Mo Sarkar” initiative?
A. Odisha
B. West Bengal
C. Maharashtra
D. Karnataka
Q117.
Which Odisha festival is also called the “Boita Bandana”?
A. Raja
B. Bali Jatra
C. Durga Puja
D. Ratha Yatra
Q118.
Which Odisha city is famous for silver filigree work (Tarakasi)?
A. Cuttack
B. Bhubaneswar
C. Puri
D. Rourkela
Q119.
Who is the first woman Governor of Odisha?
A. Jayanti Patnaik
B. Ganeshi Lal
C. S.C. Jamir
D. None
Q120.
Which Odisha wildlife sanctuary is famous for saltwater crocodiles?
A. Bhitarkanika
B. Simlipal
C. Chandaka
D. Satkosia
Section 5: Odisha-Specific Knowledge & Computer Awareness (Q121–150)
Q121.
Which Odisha river is known as the “lifeline of western Odisha”?
A. Mahanadi
B. Tel
C. Brahmani
D. Baitarani
Q122.
Who was the first Chief Minister of Odisha?
A. Harekrushna Mahatab
B. Biju Patnaik
C. Nabakrushna Choudhury
D. Nandini Satpathy
Q123.
Which Odisha city is called the “Silver City”?
A. Bhubaneswar
B. Cuttack
C. Puri
D. Rourkela
Q124.
The famous Chilika Lake is located in which districts of Odisha?
A. Puri and Khurda
B. Khurda and Cuttack
C. Puri and Ganjam
D. Puri and Ganjam
Q125.
Which Odisha festival marks the beginning of the agricultural season?
A. Raja
B. Bali Jatra
C. Durga Puja
D. Boita Bandana
Q126.
Who is the author of “Mo Samaya Odisha”?
A. Gopabandhu Das
B. Fakir Mohan Senapati
C. Manoj Das
D. Ramakrushna Nanda
Q127.
Which Odisha temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site?
A. Lingaraj Temple
B. Konark Sun Temple
C. Jagannath Temple
D. Mukteswar Temple
Q128.
The Hirakud Dam is constructed on which river?
A. Mahanadi
B. Brahmani
C. Subarnarekha
D. Baitarani
Q129.
Which Odisha dance form is performed with a mask?
A. Chhau
B. Dalkhai
C. Ghumura
D. Jhumar
Q130.
Which Odisha beach is known for the Sun Festival?
A. Puri Beach
B. Chandrabhaga Beach
C. Gopalpur Beach
D. Paradeep Beach
Q131.
Which Odisha city is called the “Temple City”?
A. Bhubaneswar
B. Puri
C. Cuttack
D. Rourkela
Q132.
Who is the founder of Utkal University?
A. Gopabandhu Das
B. Harekrushna Mahatab
C. Biju Patnaik
D. Madhusudan Das
Q133.
Which Odisha river flows into the Bay of Bengal near Paradeep?
A. Mahanadi
B. Brahmani
C. Subarnarekha
D. Baitarani
Q134.
Which Odisha wildlife sanctuary is famous for elephants?
A. Simlipal
B. Bhitarkanika
C. Chandaka
D. Satkosia
Q135.
Which Odisha tribal festival is associated with worship of goddess of earth?
A. Raja
B. Bali Jatra
C. Boita Bandana
D. Durga Puja
Q136.
Which Odisha city is an industrial hub famous for steel production?
A. Rourkela
B. Cuttack
C. Bhubaneswar
D. Puri
Q137.
Which Odisha river originates from the Angul district?
A. Brahmani
B. Mahanadi
C. Baitarani
D. Subarnarekha
Q138.
Who among the following is a famous Oriya poet?
A. Fakir Mohan Senapati
B. Rabindranath Tagore
C. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
D. Sarojini Naidu
Q139.
Which Odisha port is located in the Kendrapara district?
A. Dhamra Port
B. Paradeep Port
C. Gopalpur Port
D. Subarnarekha Port
Q140.
Who is considered the father of modern Odia literature?
A. Fakir Mohan Senapati
B. Gopabandhu Das
C. Madhusudan Das
D. Upendra Bhanja
Q141.
Which Odisha temple is known for its exquisite stone carvings and elephants?
A. Konark Sun Temple
B. Lingaraj Temple
C. Jagannath Temple
D. Mukteswar Temple
Q142.
Which Odisha dam is built on the Brahmani river?
A. Rengali Dam
B. Hirakud Dam
C. Mahanadi Barrage
D. Indravati Dam
Q143.
Which Odisha tribal community is famous for Pattachitra paintings?
A. Saura
B. Kondha
C. Munda
D. Bhuyan
Q144.
Which Odisha festival involves floating miniature boats on rivers?
A. Boita Bandana
B. Raja
C. Durga Puja
D. Bali Jatra
Q145.
Which Odisha city is known as the “Steel City of India”?
A. Rourkela
B. Cuttack
C. Bhubaneswar
D. Puri
Q146.
Which Odisha river is famous for its dolphin population?
A. Mahanadi
B. Brahmani
C. Baitarani
D. Subarnarekha
Q147.
Which Odisha dance is recognized by UNESCO as intangible cultural heritage?
A. Chhau
B. Ghumura
C. Dalkhai
D. Jhumar
Q148.
Which Odisha festival is also called “Odisha Boita Yatra”?
A. Bali Jatra
B. Raja
C. Durga Puja
D. Ratha Yatra
Q149.
Which Odisha district is famous for silver filigree work?
A. Cuttack
B. Bhubaneswar
C. Puri
D. Rourkela
Q150.
Which of the following is a fundamental computer operation?
A. Input
B. Processing
C. Output
D. All of the above
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | A | 31 | D | 61 | A | 91 | A |
| 2 | C | 32 | B | 62 | B | 92 | A |
| 3 | A | 33 | C | 63 | B | 93 | A |
| 4 | A | 34 | B | 64 | A | 94 | B |
| 5 | D | 35 | B | 65 | B | 95 | B |
| 6 | B | 36 | C | 66 | A | 96 | A |
| 7 | C | 37 | D | 67 | B | 97 | B |
| 8 | A | 38 | A | 68 | B | 98 | C |
| 9 | C | 39 | B | 69 | C | 99 | A |
| 10 | A | 40 | D | 70 | A | 100 | B |
| 11 | B | 41 | B | 71 | A | 101 | A |
| 12 | C | 42 | A | 72 | B | 102 | A |
| 13 | C | 43 | B | 73 | B | 103 | A |
| 14 | A | 44 | B | 74 | A | 104 | A |
| 15 | B | 45 | B | 75 | A | 105 | D |
| 16 | B | 46 | A | 76 | A | 106 | A |
| 17 | A | 47 | C | 77 | B | 107 | B |
| 18 | B | 48 | A | 78 | B | 108 | A |
| 19 | C | 49 | B | 79 | A | 109 | C |
| 20 | A | 50 | D | 80 | B | 110 | A |
| 21 | B | 51 | A | 81 | A | 111 | B |
| 22 | A | 52 | B | 82 | A | 112 | B |
| 23 | A | 53 | A | 83 | C | 113 | A |
| 24 | A | 54 | B | 84 | A | 114 | A |
| 25 | B | 55 | B | 85 | A | 115 | A |
| 26 | C | 56 | B | 86 | A | 116 | A |
| 27 | A | 57 | A | 87 | B | 117 | B |
| 28 | B | 58 | A | 88 | B | 118 | A |
| 29 | C | 59 | D | 89 | B | 119 | D |
| 30 | A | 60 | A | 90 | B | 120 | A |
| —- | —– | —- | —– | —- | —– | —- | —– |
| 121 | A | 131 | A | 141 | A | 151 | – |
| 122 | A | 132 | B | 142 | A | ||
| 123 | B | 133 | A | 143 | A | ||
| 124 | D | 134 | A | 144 | A | ||
| 125 | A | 135 | A | 145 | A | ||
| 126 | B | 136 | A | 146 | A | ||
| 127 | B | 137 | A | 147 | A | ||
| 128 | A | 138 | A | 148 | A | ||
| 129 | A | 139 | A | 149 | A | ||
| 130 | B | 140 | A | 150 | D |
Disclaimer:
This mock test is designed for practice purposes only. It is based on past trends and official OSSC CGL exam patterns. Accuracy of answers is provided to the best of knowledge, but OSSC official sources should be consulted for final preparation.