OSSC CGL Preliminary Mock Test

  • Quantitative Aptitude (30 Qs)
  • Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability (30 Qs)
  • English Language & Comprehension (30 Qs)
  • General Awareness & Current Affairs (30 Qs)
  • Odisha-Specific Knowledge & Computer Awareness (30 Qs)

Section 1: Quantitative Aptitude (Q1–30)

Q1.

A train running at 54 km/hr crosses a pole in 20 seconds. What is the length of the train?

A. 300 m
B. 250 m
C. 280 m
D. 320 m


Q2.

The average of 5 consecutive even numbers is 36. What is the largest number?

A. 40
B. 38
C. 42
D. 44


Q3.

A shopkeeper sells an article at a profit of 20%. If the cost price is Rs. 500, the selling price is:

A. 600
B. 620
C. 580
D. 550


Q4.

The ratio of two numbers is 3:4, and their LCM is 240. Their HCF is:

A. 20
B. 30
C. 15
D. 10


Q5.

If 12 men can do a work in 18 days, how many men will be required to complete the work in 12 days?

A. 18
B. 16
C. 20
D. 24


Q6.

The compound interest on Rs. 5000 at 10% per annum for 2 years is:

A. 1050
B. 1100
C. 1200
D. 1150


Q7.

A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. The net change in the number is:

A. 0%
B. 2% decrease
C. 4% decrease
D. 4% increase


Q8.

If 3/4 of a number is 27, then the number is:

A. 36
B. 32
C. 40
D. 30


Q9.

A can do a work in 12 days, B in 16 days. They work together. How many days will they take?

A. 7
B. 6.86
C. 6.8
D. 6.9


Q10.

The simple interest on Rs. 7500 at 8% per annum for 3 years is:

A. 1800
B. 1700
C. 1750
D. 1600


Q11.

The ratio of the ages of A and B is 5:6. After 6 years, the sum of their ages will be 66. The present age of A is:

A. 25
B. 24
C. 20
D. 22


Q12.

A boat goes 20 km downstream in 2 hours and returns upstream in 4 hours. The speed of the stream is:

A. 2 km/hr
B. 3 km/hr
C. 4 km/hr
D. 5 km/hr


Q13.

The difference between the simple and compound interest on Rs. 1000 at 10% for 2 years is:

A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
D. 20


Q14.

The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 75. The largest number is:

A. 27
B. 25
C. 29
D. 31


Q15.

A bag contains 4 red, 5 green, and 6 blue balls. A ball is drawn at random. Probability that it is not green:

A. 5/15
B. 2/3
C. 1/3
D. 3/5


Q16.

The LCM of 12, 18, and 24 is:

A. 72
B. 144
C. 216
D. 36


Q17.

If a number is multiplied by 5/6 and then increased by 12, the result is 42. Find the number:

A. 36
B. 36.8
C. 36.5
D. 35


Q18.

The sum of the squares of two numbers is 85 and their product is 20. The sum of numbers is:

A. 13
B. 12
C. 14
D. 15


Q19.

A and B can do a work in 12 days. B and C can do it in 15 days. A and C can do it in 20 days. How long will A, B, and C together take?

A. 7 days
B. 6 days
C. 5 days
D. 8 days


Q20.

A sum of money doubles itself at simple interest in 12 years. The rate of interest per annum is:

A. 8.33%
B. 9%
C. 10%
D. 12%


Q21.

A shopkeeper sold an article at a profit of 15%. Had he sold it for Rs. 10 more, the profit would have been 20%. The cost price is:

A. 100
B. 120
C. 80
D. 150


Q22.

The perimeter of a rectangle is 60 m and the length is twice the breadth. The area of the rectangle is:

A. 200 m²
B. 150 m²
C. 180 m²
D. 160 m²


Q23.

The sum of first 20 natural numbers divisible by 3 is:

A. 630
B. 640
C. 650
D. 600


Q24.

A shopkeeper buys an article for Rs. 500 and marks it at 600. He allows a discount of 10%. Profit percent is:

A. 8%
B. 9%
C. 10%
D. 12%


Q25.

If the difference between compound interest and simple interest on Rs. 5000 at 10% per annum for 2 years is:

A. 50
B. 25
C. 100
D. 75


Q26.

A bag contains 3 red, 4 white, and 5 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random. Probability that both are black:

A. 5/66
B. 1/6
C. 2/11
D. 5/22


Q27.

If the radius of a circle is increased by 20%, the area increases by:

A. 44%
B. 40%
C. 42%
D. 45%


Q28.

A sum of Rs. 8000 amounts to Rs. 10,240 in 2 years at compound interest. The rate of interest is:

A. 12%
B. 10%
C. 8%
D. 15%


Q29.

The difference between the HCF and LCM of two numbers is 18. If their product is 648, the numbers are:

A. 12, 18
B. 18, 36
C. 12, 24
D. 18, 30


Q30.

A man walks 6 km north, then 8 km east. The distance from starting point is:

A. 10 km
B. 12 km
C. 14 km
D. 15 km

OSSC CGL Preliminary Mock Test – Part 2

Section 2: Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability (Q31–60)

Q31.

Find the missing number:
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

A. 40
B. 42
C. 45
D. 50


Q32.

If A + B means A ÷ B, A – B means A × B, A × B means A + B, then 6 – 3 ÷ 3 × 2 = ?

A. 10
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8


Q33.

Find the odd number:
121, 144, 169, 196, 210

A. 144
B. 196
C. 210
D. 169


Q34.

Complete the series:
1, 8, 27, 64, ?

A. 100
B. 125
C. 144
D. 150


Q35.

Pointing to a man, Rahul says, “He is the son of the daughter of my grandfather.” How is the man related to Rahul?

A. Brother
B. Cousin
C. Uncle
D. Nephew


Q36.

Find the missing term:
J, M, P, S, ?

A. U
B. V
C. W
D. X


Q37.

Find the odd pair:

A. Pen – Write
B. Knife – Cut
C. Spoon – Eat
D. Chair – Drink


Q38.

If MONKEY is coded as LJKIXD, how is TIGER coded in the same way?

A. QFDCQ
B. QFCDQ
C. QFDCR
D. QFCRD


Q39.

A man walks 10 km north, 6 km east, 4 km south, and 2 km west. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 10 km
B. 8 km
C. 6 km
D. 12 km


Q40.

Select the number which does NOT belong to the group:
8, 27, 64, 125, 150

A. 8
B. 27
C. 125
D. 150


Q41.

If 3 pencils cost 15 rupees, how much do 8 pencils cost?

A. 40
B. 45
C. 35
D. 50


Q42.

In a code language, “TABLE” is written as “UDCDN”. How is “CHAIR” written?

A. DIBJS
B. DIBKT
C. DJBKT
D. DJBJS


Q43.

Find the next term in the series:
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?

A. 35
B. 37
C. 38
D. 39


Q44.

Ramesh is taller than Suresh but shorter than Mukesh. Mukesh is taller than Ramesh. Who is the shortest?

A. Ramesh
B. Suresh
C. Mukesh
D. Cannot determine


Q45.

Complete the analogy:
Finger : Hand :: Leaf : ?

A. Branch
B. Tree
C. Plant
D. Stem


Q46.

Find the missing number:
5, 25, 125, 625, ?

A. 3125
B. 3500
C. 3000
D. 3150


Q47.

If 7 + 3 = 28, 5 + 4 = 20, then 9 + 6 = ?

A. 45
B. 54
C. 60
D. 63


Q48.

A word is coded as:
BRIGHT → CSJHUI. What is the code for NIGHT?

A. OJHIU
B. OJHIV
C. MJHIU
D. OJHIV


Q49.

Select the number which completes the series:
3, 6, 12, 24, 48, ?

A. 90
B. 96
C. 100
D. 92


Q50.

Find the odd one out:
Dog, Cat, Tiger, Cow

A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Tiger
D. Cow


Q51.

If A is the brother of B, B is the sister of C, and C is the father of D. How is D related to A?

A. Nephew
B. Niece
C. Cousin
D. Cannot say


Q52.

Complete the series:
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, ?

A. 54
B. 56
C. 60
D. 62


Q53.

A word is coded as: SCHOOL → TDPIPM. How is LIBRARY coded?

A. MJCSBSZ
B. MJCBSBZ
C. MJCBTAZ
D. MJCBSCZ


Q54.

Find the next term in the series:
1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

A. 30
B. 36
C. 35
D. 40


Q55.

A is 20 km north of B. C is 15 km east of B. D is 10 km south of C. Distance between A and D?

A. 25 km
B. 30 km
C. 35 km
D. 40 km


Q56.

If PEN = 16, PENCIL = 42, then BOOK = ?

A. 30
B. 28
C. 32
D. 34


Q57.

In a code, 1 = A, 2 = B, …, 26 = Z. If 20-9-7-5-18 is coded, what is the word?

A. TIGER
B. TIGERX
C. TIGEX
D. TIGE


Q58.

A man walks 12 km east, then 5 km south, then 12 km west. How far is he from starting point?

A. 5 km
B. 10 km
C. 12 km
D. 15 km


Q59.

Find the odd pair:
Hammer – Nail, Pen – Paper, Knife – Cut, Spoon – Book

A. Hammer – Nail
B. Pen – Paper
C. Knife – Cut
D. Spoon – Book


Q60.

Complete the analogy:
Bird : Fly :: Fish : ?

A. Swim
B. Dive
C. Jump
D. Glide

Section 3: English Language & Comprehension (Q61–90)

Q61.

Choose the correctly spelled word:

A. Accommodate
B. Acommodate
C. Accomodate
D. Acomodate


Q62.

Fill in the blank with correct preposition:
He is proficient ___ mathematics.

A. at
B. in
C. on
D. with


Q63.

Identify the synonym of Obsolete:

A. Modern
B. Outdated
C. Useful
D. Current


Q64.

Choose the antonym of Vigorous:

A. Weak
B. Strong
C. Robust
D. Active


Q65.

Choose the correct sentence:

A. He don’t like mangoes.
B. He doesn’t like mangoes.
C. He not likes mangoes.
D. He not like mangoes.


Q66.

Fill in the blank:
Neither of the boys ___ present in the class.

A. is
B. are
C. were
D. be


Q67.

Identify the correct transformation of the sentence:
“Ramesh said to me, ‘I will come tomorrow.’”

A. Ramesh told me that he will come tomorrow.
B. Ramesh told me that he would come the next day.
C. Ramesh said to me that he will come tomorrow.
D. Ramesh told me he will come tomorrow.


Q68.

Choose the word which can replace the underlined word:
The teacher was elated by the student’s performance.

A. Sad
B. Happy
C. Angry
D. Confused


Q69.

Choose the correct option to complete the sentence:
He ___ to the market when it started raining.

A. goes
B. went
C. was going
D. is going


Q70.

Find the correctly punctuated sentence:

A. What is your name?
B. What is your name.
C. What is your name!
D. What is your name,


Q71.

Select the correctly spelled word:

A. Harass
B. Harrass
C. Harres
D. Haraas


Q72.

Fill in the blank with correct article:
She is ___ honest woman.

A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article


Q73.

Identify the synonym of Meticulous:

A. Careless
B. Thorough
C. Lazy
D. Rough


Q74.

Choose the antonym of Transparent:

A. Opaque
B. Clear
C. Lucid
D. Crystal


Q75.

Identify the correct passive form:
“People speak English all over the world.”

A. English is spoken by people all over the world.
B. English was spoken by people all over the world.
C. English spoken by people all over the world.
D. English is speaked by people all over the world.


Q76.

Select the correct plural form:
Cactus

A. Cactuses
B. Cacti
C. Cactae
D. Cactus


Q77.

Choose the correctly spelled word:

A. Occurrence
B. Ocurrence
C. Occurence
D. Occurancce


Q78.

Fill in the blank:
He is the most talented student ___ the class.

A. in
B. of
C. at
D. for


Q79.

Identify the error in the sentence:
She suggested me to take rest.

A. suggested → suggested that
B. me → I
C. take → took
D. rest → resting


Q80.

Choose the correct option:
The doctor advised him ___ less sugar.

A. eat
B. to eat
C. eating
D. eats


Q81.

Select the word closest in meaning to Benevolent:

A. Kind
B. Cruel
C. Angry
D. Selfish


Q82.

Fill in the blank:
I have been waiting here ___ morning.

A. since
B. for
C. during
D. at


Q83.

Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:

A. He said “I am tired.”
B. He said, I am tired.
C. He said, “I am tired.”
D. He said “I am tired”,


Q84.

Identify the synonym of Adversity:

A. Misfortune
B. Fortune
C. Luck
D. Happiness


Q85.

Choose the correct form of verb:
Either my mother or my sisters ___ going to the party.

A. is
B. are
C. am
D. be


Q86.

Complete the analogy:
Book : Read :: Knife : ?

A. Cut
B. Write
C. Eat
D. Chop


Q87.

Choose the correct sentence:

A. She has visited Paris last year.
B. She visited Paris last year.
C. She visits Paris last year.
D. She had visits Paris last year.


Q88.

Select the correct antonym of Scarce:

A. Rare
B. Abundant
C. Little
D. Insufficient


Q89.

Fill in the blank:
He didn’t come, ___ he was invited.

A. because
B. although
C. since
D. whereas


Q90.

Identify the error in the sentence:
Neither of the boys are present today.

A. Neither → Each
B. are → is
C. boys → boys’
D. present → presents


Section 4: General Awareness & Current Affairs (Q91–120)

Q91.

Who is the current Chief Minister of Odisha?

A. Naveen Patnaik
B. Dharmendra Pradhan
C. Pinaki Mishra
D. Pramila Mallick


Q92.

Which river is known as the “Sorrow of Odisha”?

A. Mahanadi
B. Brahmani
C. Baitarani
D. Subarnarekha


Q93.

Odisha became a separate province in which year?

A. 1936
B. 1947
C. 1950
D. 1935


Q94.

What is the capital of Odisha?

A. Cuttack
B. Bhubaneswar
C. Puri
D. Rourkela


Q95.

Which Odisha festival is famous for the chariot procession of Lord Jagannath?

A. Raja
B. Ratha Yatra
C. Bali Jatra
D. Durga Puja


Q96.

Who is known as the “Iron Man of India”?

A. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B. Subhash Chandra Bose
C. Biju Patnaik
D. Jawaharlal Nehru


Q97.

What is the national animal of India?

A. Lion
B. Tiger
C. Elephant
D. Leopard


Q98.

Which country launched the Chandrayaan-3 mission?

A. USA
B. Russia
C. India
D. Japan


Q99.

Who was the first President of India?

A. Rajendra Prasad
B. S. Radhakrishnan
C. Zakir Husain
D. V.V. Giri


Q100.

Which Odisha beach is famous for its sand dunes and turtle nesting?

A. Puri Beach
B. Chandrabhaga Beach
C. Gopalpur Beach
D. Konark Beach


Q101.

Who is known as the “Missile Man of India”?

A. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
B. Vikram Sarabhai
C. Homi Bhabha
D. Satish Dhawan


Q102.

Which of the following is the highest peak in Odisha?

A. Deomali
B. Chandragiri
C. Khandagiri
D. Hirakud


Q103.

Which Odisha city is famous for the Hirakud Dam?

A. Sambalpur
B. Bhubaneswar
C. Cuttack
D. Rourkela


Q104.

Which Odisha tribal dance is performed during the harvest festival of Raja?

A. Dalkhai
B. Ghumura
C. Chhau
D. Jhumar


Q105.

Who is the current Governor of Odisha?

A. Ganeshi Lal
B. S.C. Jamir
C. Ashok Gehlot
D. Biswa Bhusan Harichandan


Q106.

Which Odisha river originates from the Amravati hills of Chhattisgarh?

A. Mahanadi
B. Brahmani
C. Baitarani
D. Subarnarekha


Q107.

Which Odisha festival is celebrated to honor the Sun God?

A. Raja
B. Chhath Puja
C. Durga Puja
D. Bali Jatra


Q108.

Who was the first Prime Minister of India?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Rajendra Prasad


Q109.

Which Indian state has the largest coastline?

A. Odisha
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Gujarat
D. Andhra Pradesh


Q110.

Which Odisha port is the largest in terms of cargo handling?

A. Paradeep Port
B. Gopalpur Port
C. Dhamra Port
D. Subarnarekha Port


Q111.

The Konark Sun Temple was built in which century?

A. 12th century
B. 13th century
C. 14th century
D. 11th century


Q112.

Which Odisha leader is known for the Kalinga movement during the independence struggle?

A. Biju Patnaik
B. Lingaraj Mishra
C. Utkalmani Gopabandhu Das
D. Harekrushna Mahatab


Q113.

Which national park in Odisha is famous for its tiger reserve?

A. Simlipal
B. Bhitarkanika
C. Chilika
D. Satkosia


Q114.

Which Odisha lake is famous for migratory birds?

A. Chilika Lake
B. Anshupa Lake
C. Hirakud Lake
D. Kanjia Lake


Q115.

Who won the Nobel Prize in Literature from India?

A. Rabindranath Tagore
B. C.V. Raman
C. Hargobind Khorana
D. Amartya Sen


Q116.

Which Indian state recently launched the “Mo Sarkar” initiative?

A. Odisha
B. West Bengal
C. Maharashtra
D. Karnataka


Q117.

Which Odisha festival is also called the “Boita Bandana”?

A. Raja
B. Bali Jatra
C. Durga Puja
D. Ratha Yatra


Q118.

Which Odisha city is famous for silver filigree work (Tarakasi)?

A. Cuttack
B. Bhubaneswar
C. Puri
D. Rourkela


Q119.

Who is the first woman Governor of Odisha?

A. Jayanti Patnaik
B. Ganeshi Lal
C. S.C. Jamir
D. None


Q120.

Which Odisha wildlife sanctuary is famous for saltwater crocodiles?

A. Bhitarkanika
B. Simlipal
C. Chandaka
D. Satkosia

Section 5: Odisha-Specific Knowledge & Computer Awareness (Q121–150)

Q121.

Which Odisha river is known as the “lifeline of western Odisha”?

A. Mahanadi
B. Tel
C. Brahmani
D. Baitarani


Q122.

Who was the first Chief Minister of Odisha?

A. Harekrushna Mahatab
B. Biju Patnaik
C. Nabakrushna Choudhury
D. Nandini Satpathy


Q123.

Which Odisha city is called the “Silver City”?

A. Bhubaneswar
B. Cuttack
C. Puri
D. Rourkela


Q124.

The famous Chilika Lake is located in which districts of Odisha?

A. Puri and Khurda
B. Khurda and Cuttack
C. Puri and Ganjam
D. Puri and Ganjam


Q125.

Which Odisha festival marks the beginning of the agricultural season?

A. Raja
B. Bali Jatra
C. Durga Puja
D. Boita Bandana


Q126.

Who is the author of “Mo Samaya Odisha”?

A. Gopabandhu Das
B. Fakir Mohan Senapati
C. Manoj Das
D. Ramakrushna Nanda


Q127.

Which Odisha temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

A. Lingaraj Temple
B. Konark Sun Temple
C. Jagannath Temple
D. Mukteswar Temple


Q128.

The Hirakud Dam is constructed on which river?

A. Mahanadi
B. Brahmani
C. Subarnarekha
D. Baitarani


Q129.

Which Odisha dance form is performed with a mask?

A. Chhau
B. Dalkhai
C. Ghumura
D. Jhumar


Q130.

Which Odisha beach is known for the Sun Festival?

A. Puri Beach
B. Chandrabhaga Beach
C. Gopalpur Beach
D. Paradeep Beach


Q131.

Which Odisha city is called the “Temple City”?

A. Bhubaneswar
B. Puri
C. Cuttack
D. Rourkela


Q132.

Who is the founder of Utkal University?

A. Gopabandhu Das
B. Harekrushna Mahatab
C. Biju Patnaik
D. Madhusudan Das


Q133.

Which Odisha river flows into the Bay of Bengal near Paradeep?

A. Mahanadi
B. Brahmani
C. Subarnarekha
D. Baitarani


Q134.

Which Odisha wildlife sanctuary is famous for elephants?

A. Simlipal
B. Bhitarkanika
C. Chandaka
D. Satkosia


Q135.

Which Odisha tribal festival is associated with worship of goddess of earth?

A. Raja
B. Bali Jatra
C. Boita Bandana
D. Durga Puja


Q136.

Which Odisha city is an industrial hub famous for steel production?

A. Rourkela
B. Cuttack
C. Bhubaneswar
D. Puri


Q137.

Which Odisha river originates from the Angul district?

A. Brahmani
B. Mahanadi
C. Baitarani
D. Subarnarekha


Q138.

Who among the following is a famous Oriya poet?

A. Fakir Mohan Senapati
B. Rabindranath Tagore
C. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
D. Sarojini Naidu


Q139.

Which Odisha port is located in the Kendrapara district?

A. Dhamra Port
B. Paradeep Port
C. Gopalpur Port
D. Subarnarekha Port


Q140.

Who is considered the father of modern Odia literature?

A. Fakir Mohan Senapati
B. Gopabandhu Das
C. Madhusudan Das
D. Upendra Bhanja


Q141.

Which Odisha temple is known for its exquisite stone carvings and elephants?

A. Konark Sun Temple
B. Lingaraj Temple
C. Jagannath Temple
D. Mukteswar Temple


Q142.

Which Odisha dam is built on the Brahmani river?

A. Rengali Dam
B. Hirakud Dam
C. Mahanadi Barrage
D. Indravati Dam


Q143.

Which Odisha tribal community is famous for Pattachitra paintings?

A. Saura
B. Kondha
C. Munda
D. Bhuyan


Q144.

Which Odisha festival involves floating miniature boats on rivers?

A. Boita Bandana
B. Raja
C. Durga Puja
D. Bali Jatra


Q145.

Which Odisha city is known as the “Steel City of India”?

A. Rourkela
B. Cuttack
C. Bhubaneswar
D. Puri


Q146.

Which Odisha river is famous for its dolphin population?

A. Mahanadi
B. Brahmani
C. Baitarani
D. Subarnarekha


Q147.

Which Odisha dance is recognized by UNESCO as intangible cultural heritage?

A. Chhau
B. Ghumura
C. Dalkhai
D. Jhumar


Q148.

Which Odisha festival is also called “Odisha Boita Yatra”?

A. Bali Jatra
B. Raja
C. Durga Puja
D. Ratha Yatra


Q149.

Which Odisha district is famous for silver filigree work?

A. Cuttack
B. Bhubaneswar
C. Puri
D. Rourkela


Q150.

Which of the following is a fundamental computer operation?

A. Input
B. Processing
C. Output
D. All of the above


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29C59D89B119D
30A60A90B120A
—-—–—-—–—-—–—-—–
121A131A141A151
122A132B142A
123B133A143A
124D134A144A
125A135A145A
126B136A146A
127B137A147A
128A138A148A
129A139A149A
130B140A150D

Disclaimer:
This mock test is designed for practice purposes only. It is based on past trends and official OSSC CGL exam patterns. Accuracy of answers is provided to the best of knowledge, but OSSC official sources should be consulted for final preparation.