- Total Questions: 100
- Sections: Physics (1–30), Chemistry (31–65), Biology (66–100)
- Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
- High-difficulty, reasoning-based, numerical + conceptual
- Text-only, ready for educational use
PGIMER Paramedical Entrance Mock Paper – 100 Questions (High Difficulty)
Section 1 – Physics (Questions 1–30)
1. A particle moves along a straight line with acceleration a=4t+2 m/s². If initial velocity = 3 m/s, displacement after 4 s = ?
a) 40 m b) 44 m c) 48 m d) 52 m
2. Two resistors 12 Ω and 18 Ω are connected in parallel across 24 V. Power dissipated in the 12 Ω resistor = ?
a) 24 W b) 36 W c) 48 W d) 32 W
3. A ray of light passes from air (n=1) into water (n=1.33). Angle of incidence = 45°. Angle of refraction = ?
a) 32.3° b) 33° c) 34° d) 35°
4. A simple pendulum of length 1.2 m oscillates inside an elevator accelerating upwards at 2 m/s². Effective period = ?
a) 2.19 s b) 2.20 s c) 2.15 s d) 2.10 s
5. Escape velocity from a planet of mass 9×10²⁴ kg and radius 6×10⁶ m = ? (G = 6.67×10⁻¹¹)
a) 11.2 km/s b) 10 km/s c) 12 km/s d) 13 km/s
6. Work done moving a charge of 6 μC through a potential difference of 150 V = ?
a) 0.9 mJ b) 0.9 J c) 0.001 J d) 1 J
7. Two coherent light sources produce interference. Path difference for constructive interference = ?
a) λ b) λ/2 c) 3λ/2 d) 2λ
8. Wire of length 1 m, resistance 2 Ω. Heated to double length. New resistance = ?
a) 8 Ω b) 4 Ω c) 6 Ω d) 5 Ω
9. A charge q produces electric field E at distance r. If distance reduced to half, field becomes ?
a) 4E b) 2E c) E/4 d) E/2
10. Capacitors 5 μF and 10 μF in series. Effective capacitance = ?
a) 3.33 μF b) 15 μF c) 4 μF d) 5 μF
11. SHM: amplitude 0.2 m, angular frequency 5 rad/s. Maximum speed = ?
a) 1 m/s b) 2 m/s c) 3 m/s d) 4 m/s
12. Photon of wavelength 600 nm. Energy = ?
a) 3.3×10⁻¹⁹ J b) 3.31×10⁻¹⁹ J c) 3.2×10⁻¹⁹ J d) 3.5×10⁻¹⁹ J
13. Source moves toward a listener at 30 m/s. Frequency = 1000 Hz. Doppler shift (v=340 m/s) = ?
a) 88 Hz b) 85 Hz c) 90 Hz d) 92 Hz
14. Rod of length L rotates about its center. Moment of inertia about end = ?
a) (1/3)mL² b) (1/12)mL² c) (1/2)mL² d) (1/6)mL²
15. Masses m and 3m connected by spring. Natural frequency of oscillation = ?
a) √(k/2m) b) √(k/m) c) √(3k/m) d) √(k/4m)
16. Pressure at depth h in liquid of density ρ = ?
a) ρgh b) ρg/h c) gh/ρ d) ρg²h
17. Convex lens focal length 25 cm. Object at 40 cm. Image distance = ?
a) 100 cm b) 40 cm c) 50 cm d) 20 cm
18. Blackbody at 6000 K. Wavelength of max intensity = ?
a) 480 nm b) 500 nm c) 520 nm d) 450 nm
19. Coil: 120 turns, area 0.01 m², flux changes at 0.06 Wb/s. Induced EMF = ?
a) 0.72 V b) 0.6 V c) 1 V d) 0.5 V
20. Half-life = 6 hr. Fraction remaining after 18 hr = ?
a) 1/8 b) 1/4 c) 1/2 d) 1/16
21. Two charges +q and –q separated by 2a. Potential at midpoint = ?
a) 0 b) q/4πε₀a c) q/2πε₀a d) –q/4πε₀a
22. Magnetic field at center of loop radius r, current I = ?
a) μ₀I/2πr b) μ₀I/2r c) μ₀I/4πr d) μ₀I/r
23. Work done by force F = 15 N along incline 30°, distance 6 m = ?
a) 45 J b) 60 J c) 50 J d) 40 J
24. Young’s modulus = ?
a) Stress/Strain b) Strain/Stress c) Stress×Strain d) Stress+Strain
25. Wave power doubles if amplitude doubles. New power = ?
a) 4× b) 2× c) 1/2× d) 1/4×
26. Spherical capacitor inner radius a, outer b. Capacitance = ?
a) 4πε₀ab/(b–a) b) 4πε₀(a–b)/ab c) 4πε₀(a+b) d) 4πε₀√(ab)
27. LC circuit, L = 3 mH, C = 50 μF. Resonance frequency = ?
a) 412 Hz b) 500 Hz c) 400 Hz d) 450 Hz
28. Two lenses f₁ = 15 cm, f₂ = 25 cm in contact. Effective focal length = ?
a) 9.375 cm b) 10 cm c) 12 cm d) 15 cm
29. EM wave frequency 5×10¹⁴ Hz. Wavelength = ?
a) 6×10⁻⁷ m b) 5×10⁻⁷ m c) 4×10⁻⁷ m d) 3×10⁻⁷ m
30. Ideal gas, 3 moles, T = 300 K. Internal energy = ?
a) 3.74 kJ b) 7.5 kJ c) 4.5 kJ d) 5 kJ
Section 2 – Chemistry (Questions 31–65)
31. Hydrocarbon: 85.7% C, 14.3% H → Molecular formula?
a) C₆H₆ b) C₂H₆ c) C₄H₁₀ d) C₃H₈
32. Oxidation state of Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇ = ?
a) +6 b) +3 c) +2 d) +4
33. pH of 0.01 M HCl = ?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 1 d) 3
34. Molecule showing hydrogen bonding = ?
a) CH₄ b) NH₃ c) CO₂ d) C₂H₆
35. Volume of 0.5 M NaOH to neutralize 50 mL 0.2 M HCl = ?
a) 20 mL b) 10 mL c) 25 mL d) 50 mL
Section 2 – Chemistry (Questions 36–65)
36. The rate constant of a first-order reaction is doubled. The half-life of the reaction becomes:
a) Half b) Same c) Double d) Quadruple
37. ΔH° for the reaction 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O is –572 kJ. Energy released per mole of H₂ = ?
a) 286 kJ b) 572 kJ c) 143 kJ d) 1144 kJ
38. Which oxide is amphoteric?
a) ZnO b) Na₂O c) CaO d) MgO
39. Molecular formula of acetic acid = ?
a) C₂H₄O₂ b) C₂H₆O c) CH₃OH d) C₃H₆O
40. Hybridization of carbon in C₂H₂ = ?
a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) sp³d
41. Solubility product of AgCl = 1.6×10⁻¹⁰. Solubility in mol/L = ?
a) 1.26×10⁻⁵ b) 1×10⁻⁵ c) 2×10⁻⁵ d) 1.6×10⁻⁵
42. The rate of a reaction doubles with every 10°C rise in temperature. The approximate activation energy is:
a) 42 kJ/mol b) 50 kJ/mol c) 60 kJ/mol d) 55 kJ/mol
43. Strongest acid among the following:
a) HClO₄ b) HClO₃ c) HClO₂ d) HClO
44. Least electronegative element:
a) Na b) Cl c) O d) F
45. Which element has the highest electron affinity?
a) Cl b) F c) O d) Br
46. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
a) Glucose b) Sucrose c) Starch d) Cellulose
47. Which is paramagnetic?
a) O₂ b) N₂ c) CO₂ d) H₂
48. A 0.1 M solution of NaOH contains:
a) 0.1 M OH⁻ b) 0.2 M OH⁻ c) 0.05 M OH⁻ d) 0.01 M OH⁻
49. Which of the following shows cis-trans isomerism?
a) C₂H₂Cl₂ b) C₂H₄Cl₂ c) CH₄ d) C₂H₆
50. The mass of 1 mole of CO₂ = ?
a) 44 g b) 28 g c) 32 g d) 12 g
51. Which of the following is nonpolar?
a) CO₂ b) H₂O c) NH₃ d) HCl
52. The oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄ = ?
a) +7 b) +2 c) +4 d) +6
53. The standard electrode potential of Cu²⁺/Cu = ?
a) +0.34 V b) +0.44 V c) +0.54 V d) +0.24 V
54. Which compound shows resonance?
a) Benzene b) Methane c) Ethane d) Propane
55. Which gas is released when HCl reacts with Na₂CO₃?
a) CO₂ b) O₂ c) H₂ d) N₂
56. Which of the following is a Lewis base?
a) NH₃ b) HCl c) BF₃ d) AlCl₃
57. The boiling point of water increases with addition of:
a) NaCl b) Ethanol c) Methanol d) Benzene
58. Which is a tertiary alcohol?
a) (CH₃)₃COH b) CH₃CH₂OH c) CH₃CH(OH)CH₃ d) CH₃OH
59. Which of the following exhibits tautomerism?
a) Acetone b) Methane c) Ethane d) Ethylene
60. Which element forms ionic compounds predominantly?
a) Sodium b) Carbon c) Oxygen d) Hydrogen
61. Which is a strong oxidizing agent?
a) KMnO₄ b) H₂ c) CO d) C
62. Which compound is aromatic?
a) Benzene b) Cyclohexane c) Propane d) Butane
63. Which is a polymerization reaction?
a) Ethylene → Polyethylene b) Ethanol oxidation c) Esterification d) Neutralization
64. Which element is most metallic?
a) Sodium b) Magnesium c) Aluminium d) Phosphorus
65. Which solution is buffer?
a) CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa b) HCl c) NaOH d) H₂SO₄
Section 3 – Biology (Questions 66–100)
66. Gene on X chromosome expressed only in males → ?
a) X-linked recessive b) X-linked dominant c) Autosomal d) Mitochondrial
67. Enzyme converting fibrinogen → fibrin = ?
a) Thrombin b) Pepsin c) Trypsin d) Lipase
68. Water-soluble vitamin = ?
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin A c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin E
69. Chamber receiving oxygenated blood from lungs = ?
a) Left atrium b) Right atrium c) Left ventricle d) Right ventricle
Section 3 – Biology (Questions 70–100)
70. ABO blood group shows codominance in:
a) AB group b) O group c) A group d) B group
71. Maximum oxygen uptake during exercise is measured as:
a) VO₂ max b) Hemoglobin saturation c) Partial pressure of O₂ d) Tidal volume
72. Which of the following is a secondary messenger in cell signaling?
a) cAMP b) ATP c) NADH d) FADH₂
73. Deficiency of which vitamin causes pernicious anemia?
a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin K
74. DNA replication in prokaryotes is:
a) Bidirectional from a single origin b) Unidirectional c) Multiple origins d) Random
75. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes all except:
a) No mutation b) Random mating c) Large population d) Natural selection
76. Organelle involved in detoxification and double-membrane bound:
a) Peroxisome b) Lysosome c) Ribosome d) Golgi apparatus
77. Microsporogenesis in flowering plants produces:
a) Pollen grains b) Ovules c) Embryo sac d) Endosperm
78. In humans, which blood cells are anucleate?
a) RBCs b) WBCs c) Platelets d) Lymphocytes
79. Krebs cycle produces per glucose molecule:
a) 6 NADH, 2 FADH₂, 2 ATP b) 3 NADH, 1 FADH₂, 1 ATP c) 12 NADH, 4 FADH₂, 4 ATP d) 8 NADH, 2 FADH₂, 2 ATP
80. Hormone regulating calcium homeostasis:
a) Parathyroid hormone b) Insulin c) Glucagon d) Thyroxine
81. Autotrophic organism:
a) Cyanobacteria b) Amoeba c) Paramecium d) Fungi
82. Enzyme involved in transcription in eukaryotes:
a) RNA polymerase II b) DNA polymerase c) Ligase d) Primase
83. Tertiary consumer in a food chain:
a) Hawk b) Grasshopper c) Grass d) Snake
84. Plant tissue responsible for lateral growth:
a) Cambium b) Xylem c) Phloem d) Cortex
85. Vector-borne protozoan disease:
a) Malaria b) Typhoid c) Cholera d) Tuberculosis
86. Part of nephron responsible for selective glucose reabsorption:
a) Proximal convoluted tubule b) Loop of Henle c) Distal tubule d) Collecting duct
87. Antibody class crossing the placenta:
a) IgG b) IgA c) IgM d) IgE
88. Photoperiodism in plants controls:
a) Flowering b) Germination c) Photosynthesis d) Respiration
89. RNA carrying amino acids to ribosome:
a) tRNA b) mRNA c) rRNA d) snRNA
90. Brain part regulating balance and posture:
a) Cerebellum b) Cerebrum c) Medulla oblongata d) Hypothalamus
91. Structure preventing backflow of blood in veins:
a) Valves b) Atria c) Ventricles d) Capillaries
92. Hormone triggering milk ejection:
a) Oxytocin b) Prolactin c) Estrogen d) Progesterone
93. Double fertilization in plants produces:
a) Zygote + Endosperm b) Only zygote c) Only endosperm d) Seed coat
94. Fat-soluble vitamin:
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin B12
95. Blood vessel carrying oxygenated blood from lungs:
a) Pulmonary vein b) Pulmonary artery c) Aorta d) Vena cava
96. Proto-oncogene in humans:
a) Ras b) p53 c) BRCA1 d) APC
97. Haploid structure in plants:
a) Gametophyte b) Sporophyte c) Seed d) Ovule
98. Process producing genetically identical daughter cells:
a) Mitosis b) Meiosis c) Fertilization d) Crossing over
99. Organelle where aerobic respiration occurs:
a) Mitochondria b) Nucleus c) Chloroplast d) Ribosome
100. Energy decreases at successive trophic levels due to:
a) Energy loss as heat b) Increased biomass c) Photosynthesis d) Respiration only
Disclaimer:
This mock paper is for practice and educational purposes only. Questions are based on previous years’ trends. It does not guarantee the exact pattern of the official PGIMER Paramedical exam.
PGIMER Paramedical Mock Paper – Answer Key (1–100)
| Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | 26 | A | 51 | A | 76 | A |
| 2 | B | 27 | A | 52 | A | 77 | A |
| 3 | A | 28 | A | 53 | A | 78 | A |
| 4 | A | 29 | A | 54 | A | 79 | A |
| 5 | A | 30 | A | 55 | A | 80 | A |
| 6 | A | 31 | B | 56 | A | 81 | A |
| 7 | A | 32 | A | 57 | A | 82 | A |
| 8 | A | 33 | A | 58 | A | 83 | A |
| 9 | A | 34 | A | 59 | A | 84 | A |
| 10 | A | 35 | A | 60 | A | 85 | A |
| 11 | A | 36 | A | 61 | A | 86 | A |
| 12 | A | 37 | A | 62 | A | 87 | A |
| 13 | A | 38 | A | 63 | A | 88 | A |
| 14 | A | 39 | A | 64 | A | 89 | A |
| 15 | A | 40 | A | 65 | A | 90 | A |
| 16 | A | 41 | A | 66 | A | 91 | A |
| 17 | A | 42 | A | 67 | A | 92 | A |
| 18 | A | 43 | A | 68 | A | 93 | A |
| 19 | A | 44 | A | 69 | A | 94 | A |
| 20 | A | 45 | A | 70 | A | 95 | A |
| 21 | A | 46 | A | 71 | A | 96 | A |
| 22 | A | 47 | A | 72 | A | 97 | A |
| 23 | A | 48 | A | 73 | A | 98 | A |
| 24 | A | 49 | A | 74 | A | 99 | A |
| 25 | A | 50 | A | 75 | A | 100 | A |