Section 1 – Physics (1–30)
1. A particle moves such that s=5t2+3t. Its acceleration at t = 2 s is:
a) 5 m/s² b) 8 m/s² c) 10 m/s² d) 12 m/s²
2. Two resistors 10Ω and 20Ω in parallel. Equivalent resistance:
a) 5Ω b) 6.67Ω c) 15Ω d) 30Ω
3. Mass 2 kg, speed 3 m/s, radius 1.5 m. Centripetal force:
a) 9 N b) 12 N c) 18 N d) 6 N
4. Focal length of lens with power 4D:
a) 25 cm b) 20 cm c) 15 cm d) 10 cm
5. Escape velocity from Earth:
a) 11.2 km/s b) 10 km/s c) 9.8 km/s d) 12 km/s
6. Doubling slit distance in Young’s experiment changes fringe width:
a) Double b) Half c) Same d) Quadruple
7. Work done in isothermal expansion of ideal gas:
a) nRT ln(V₂/V₁) b) nRT(V₂−V₁) c) Zero d) nCᵥΔT
8. Capacitor 20 μF charged to 40 V. Energy stored:
a) 0.016 J b) 0.016 kJ c) 0.016 mJ d) 0.016 MJ
9. Transformer: primary 800 turns, secondary 200, 240 V input. Secondary voltage:
a) 60 V b) 80 V c) 120 V d) 240 V
10. Dimensional formula of torque:
a) ML²T⁻² b) MLT⁻¹ c) ML²T⁻¹ d) MLT⁻²
11. Half-life 4 hr. Fraction remaining after 8 hr:
a) 1/4 b) 1/2 c) 1/8 d) 3/4
12. Wave frequency 500 Hz, velocity 340 m/s. Wavelength:
a) 0.68 m b) 0.34 m c) 1 m d) 2 m
13. Body slides down smooth incline 30°. Acceleration:
a) g b) g/2 c) g/√2 d) g/3
14. Elastic collision: 5 kg at 4 m/s hits stationary 5 kg. Velocity of first mass:
a) 0 b) 4 m/s c) –4 m/s d) 2 m/s
15. Magnetic force on q moving perpendicular to B:
a) qvB b) qB/v c) v/B d) q/vB
16. Pressure at 10 m depth in water:
a) 9.8×10⁴ Pa b) 9.8×10³ Pa c) 1×10⁵ Pa d) 5×10⁴ Pa
17. Amplitude of SHM doubles. Energy becomes:
a) 2E b) 4E c) E/2 d) E
18. SI unit of electric field:
a) N/C b) C/N c) V d) J
19. Stopping potential in photoelectric effect depends on:
a) Frequency b) Intensity c) Work function only d) Surface area
20. Resistance doubled by length:
a) 2R b) 4R c) R/2 d) R
21. Moment of inertia of solid sphere about diameter:
a) 2/5 MR² b) 2/3 MR² c) MR² d) 1/2 MR²
22. Boyle’s law is valid at:
a) Constant temperature b) Constant pressure c) Constant volume d) Constant entropy
23. Two capacitors 6 μF and 3 μF in series. Effective capacitance:
a) 2 μF b) 9 μF c) 3 μF d) 1 μF
24. Power of convex lens, f = 25 cm:
a) 4 D b) 2 D c) 0.25 D d) 1 D
25. SI unit of magnetic flux:
a) Weber b) Tesla c) Henry d) Coulomb
26. Entropy of isolated system:
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Constant d) Zero
27. Force perpendicular to displacement: work done:
a) Maximum b) Zero c) Minimum d) Infinite
28. Refractive index is ratio of:
a) Speed in vacuum/speed in medium b) Speed in medium/speed in vacuum c) Density ratio d) Angle ratio
29. Charge on electron:
a) 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C b) 1.6×10⁻¹⁸ C c) 1.6×10⁻²⁰ C d) 3.2×10⁻¹⁹ C
30. First law of thermodynamics based on conservation of:
a) Energy b) Momentum c) Mass d) Charge
Section 2 – Chemistry (31–65)
31. Hybridization of P in PCl₃:
a) sp³ b) sp³d c) sp² d) dsp²
32. Oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄:
a) +7 b) +6 c) +4 d) +3
33. pH of 0.001 M HCl:
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
34. Strongest intermolecular force:
a) Hydrogen bonding b) Dipole–dipole c) Van der Waals d) Covalent bond
35. Ksp of AgCl:
a) [Ag⁺][Cl⁻] b) [AgCl] c) [Ag⁺]²[Cl⁻] d) 1/[Ag⁺][Cl⁻]
36. Strongest oxidizing agent:
a) F₂ b) Cl₂ c) Br₂ d) I₂
37. Amphoteric oxide:
a) Na₂O b) CaO c) ZnO d) K₂O
38. Molarity of 5 moles in 2 L solution:
a) 2.5 M b) 5 M c) 10 M d) 0.4 M
39. Geometry of NH₃:
a) Trigonal planar b) Tetrahedral c) Trigonal pyramidal d) Linear
40. Highest ionization energy:
a) Na b) Mg c) Al d) Cl
41. Number of sigma bonds in ethene:
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
42. IUPAC name of CH₃–CH₂–OH:
a) Methanol b) Ethanol c) Propanol d) Butanol
43. Functional group in carboxylic acid:
a) –OH b) –COOH c) –CHO d) –NH₂
44. Gas liberated when Na₂CO₃ reacts with HCl:
a) CO b) CO₂ c) H₂ d) O₂
45. Oxidation state of sulfur in H₂SO₄:
a) +4 b) +2 c) +6 d) 0
46. Strong acid:
a) HCl b) CH₃COOH c) H₂CO₃ d) H₂S
47. Compound showing addition reaction:
a) Ethene b) Ethane c) Methane d) Benzene
48. Noble gas:
a) N₂ b) O₂ c) Ne d) Cl₂
49. Avogadro number:
a) 6.023×10²³ b) 6.022×10²³ c) 6.002×10²³ d) 6.220×10²³
50. pH of pure water at 25°C:
a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 5
51. Ester:
a) CH₃COOCH₃ b) CH₃COOH c) CH₃OH d) CH₃CHO
52. Most electronegative element:
a) O b) N c) F d) Cl
53. Exothermic process:
a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration c) Sublimation d) Melting
54. Coordination number of [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻:
a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) 8
55. Strong base:
a) NH₄OH b) NaOH c) H₂O d) NH₃
56. Empirical formula of glucose:
a) CH₂O b) C₆H₁₂O₆ c) C₂H₄O₂ d) CHO
57. Most metallic element:
a) Na b) Mg c) Al d) Si
58. Buffer solution:
a) HCl b) NaOH c) CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa d) H₂SO₄
59. Polymer formed by condensation polymerization:
a) Polyethylene b) Teflon c) Nylon-6,6 d) Polypropylene
60. Gas liberated when Zn reacts with HCl:
a) H₂ b) O₂ c) CO₂ d) Cl₂
61. Example of chelating agent:
a) EDTA b) NaCl c) HCl d) KOH
62. Molecule exhibiting resonance:
a) Benzene b) Ethane c) Methane d) Ethanol
63. Reaction characteristic of aldehydes:
a) Addition b) Oxidation c) Substitution d) Esterification
64. Acid with highest Ka value:
a) HClO₄ b) HClO₃ c) HClO₂ d) HClO
65. Compound acting as buffer solution:
a) HCl b) NaOH c) CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa d) H₂SO₄
Section 3 – Biology (66–100)
66. Crossing over occurs during:
a) Leptotene b) Zygotene c) Pachytene d) Diplotene
67. Functional unit of kidney:
a) Nephron b) Alveolus c) Neuron d) Osteon
68. Universal donor blood group:
a) O⁻ b) AB⁺ c) A⁺ d) B⁻
69. Oxygen dissociation curve shifts right when:
a) pH ↑ b) CO₂ ↓ c) Temperature ↑ d) O₂ ↑
70. Enzyme joining Okazaki fragments:
a) DNA ligase b) DNA polymerase c) Helicase d) Primase
71. C₄ plants initially fix CO₂ into:
a) Pyruvate b) Oxaloacetic acid c) Glucose d) Malate
72. Vitamin deficiency causing pernicious anemia:
a) B₁ b) B₁₂ c) C d) D
73. Pacemaker of human heart:
a) AV node b) SA node c) Bundle of His d) Purkinje fibers
74. Site of photosynthesis in chloroplast:
a) Matrix b) Stroma c) Ribosome d) Nucleus
75. Hormone promoting glycogenesis:
a) Glucagon b) Insulin c) Adrenaline d) Cortisol
76. First immunoglobulin in primary response:
a) IgA b) IgM c) IgG d) IgE
77. Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium assumes absence of:
a) Mutation b) Natural selection c) Gene flow d) All of these
78. Voluntary action controlled by:
a) Cerebellum b) Cerebrum c) Medulla d) Hypothalamus
79. Primary nitrogenous waste in humans:
a) Ammonia b) Urea c) Uric acid d) Creatinine
80. Site of selective reabsorption:
a) Bowman’s capsule b) Loop of Henle c) Proximal convoluted tubule d) Glomerulus
81. F₂ phenotypic ratio in incomplete dominance:
a) 3:1 b) 1:2:1 c) 9:3:3:1 d) 2:1
82. Hormone promoting cell elongation:
a) Auxin b) Ethylene c) Cytokinin d) Abscisic acid
83. Retrovirus genetic material:
a) DNA b) RNA c) Both d) Protein
84. Powerhouse of cell:
a) Nucleus b) Ribosome c) Mitochondria d) Golgi
85. Disease caused by Plasmodium:
a) Dengue b) Tuberculosis c) Malaria d) Cholera
86. Bohr effect relates to:
a) Oxygen transport b) Kidney filtration c) Enzyme inhibition d) Hormonal regulation
87. ATP production in mitochondria:
a) Glycolysis b) Krebs cycle c) Oxidative phosphorylation d) Fermentation
88. Structure connecting fetus to placenta:
a) Chorion b) Amnion c) Umbilical cord d) Yolk sac
89. Double fertilization occurs in:
a) Gymnosperms b) Bryophytes c) Angiosperms d) Pteridophytes
90. Blood clotting component:
a) RBC b) WBC c) Platelets d) Plasma
91. RNA carrying amino acids:
a) mRNA b) rRNA c) tRNA d) snRNA
92. Balance and coordination controlled by:
a) Cerebellum b) Cerebrum c) Medulla d) Pons
93. RuBisCO enzyme is in:
a) Glycolysis b) Krebs cycle c) Calvin cycle d) ETC
94. Iodine deficiency causes:
a) Goitre b) Rickets c) Scurvy d) Beriberi
95. Vessel carrying oxygenated blood from lungs:
a) Pulmonary artery b) Aorta c) Pulmonary vein d) Vena cava
96. Metaphase shows:
a) Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase
97. Xylem function:
a) Food transport b) Water transport c) Photosynthesis d) Storage
98. Variation in sexually reproducing organisms arises from:
a) Binary fission b) Mutation c) Recombination d) Budding
99. Master endocrine gland:
a) Thyroid b) Adrenal c) Pituitary d) Pancreas
100. Energy flow in ecosystem:
a) Cyclic b) Bidirectional c) Unidirectional d) Random
Disclaimer:
This Punjab Paramedical Entrance Exam mock paper is created for practice and educational purposes only. It is not an official exam paper, and the actual exam pattern, questions, or difficulty may vary. Use it to improve preparation and conceptual understanding.
| Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | 26 | A | 51 | A | 76 | B |
| 2 | B | 27 | B | 52 | C | 77 | D |
| 3 | C | 28 | A | 53 | B | 78 | B |
| 4 | B | 29 | A | 54 | C | 79 | B |
| 5 | A | 30 | A | 55 | B | 80 | C |
| 6 | B | 31 | A | 56 | A | 81 | B |
| 7 | A | 32 | A | 57 | A | 82 | A |
| 8 | A | 33 | B | 58 | C | 83 | B |
| 9 | A | 34 | A | 59 | C | 84 | C |
| 10 | A | 35 | A | 60 | A | 85 | C |
| 11 | A | 36 | A | 61 | A | 86 | A |
| 12 | A | 37 | C | 62 | A | 87 | C |
| 13 | B | 38 | A | 63 | B | 88 | C |
| 14 | C | 39 | C | 64 | A | 89 | C |
| 15 | A | 40 | D | 65 | C | 90 | C |
| 16 | A | 41 | B | 66 | C | 91 | C |
| 17 | B | 42 | B | 67 | A | 92 | A |
| 18 | A | 43 | B | 68 | A | 93 | C |
| 19 | A | 44 | B | 69 | C | 94 | A |
| 20 | B | 45 | C | 70 | A | 95 | C |
| 21 | A | 46 | A | 71 | B | 96 | B |
| 22 | A | 47 | A | 72 | B | 97 | B |
| 23 | A | 48 | C | 73 | B | 98 | C |
| 24 | A | 49 | B | 74 | B | 99 | C |
| 25 | A | 50 | B | 75 | B | 100 | C |