Tamil Nadu Paramedical Entrance Exam – Mock Paper (High Difficulty)
Total Questions: 100 MCQs
Sections:
- Physics (1–30)
- Chemistry (31–65)
- Biology (66–100)
Section 1 – Physics (1–30)
1. A body of mass 3 kg moves at 4 m/s. Kinetic energy?
a) 12 J b) 24 J c) 36 J d) 48 J
2. Particle in SHM, amplitude 6 cm, frequency 3 Hz. Maximum velocity?
a) 1.13 m/s b) 1.5 m/s c) 1.26 m/s d) 1.0 m/s
3. Two resistors 12Ω and 18Ω in parallel. Equivalent resistance?
a) 7.2Ω b) 6Ω c) 5Ω d) 9Ω
4. Convex lens, focal length 25 cm. Power?
a) 4 D b) 2 D c) 1 D d) 5 D
5. Escape velocity from Earth:
a) 11.2 km/s b) 10 km/s c) 9.8 km/s d) 12 km/s
6. Young’s double slit experiment: Increasing slit separation → fringe width?
a) Increases b) Decreases c) No change d) Quadruples
7. Work done in isothermal expansion of ideal gas:
a) nRT ln(V₂/V₁) b) nRT(V₂−V₁) c) 0 d) nCᵥΔT
8. Capacitor 20 μF charged to 40 V. Energy stored:
a) 0.016 J b) 0.032 J c) 0.04 J d) 0.08 J
9. Magnetic field at center of circular loop:
a) μ₀I/2r b) μ₀I/4r c) μ₀I/πr d) μ₀I/r²
10. Dimensional formula of pressure:
a) ML⁻¹T⁻² b) MLT⁻² c) ML²T⁻² d) MLT⁻¹
11. Half-life 3 hr. Fraction remaining after 6 hr:
a) 1/4 b) 1/2 c) 1/8 d) 3/4
12. Wave frequency 500 Hz, velocity 340 m/s. Wavelength?
a) 0.68 m b) 0.72 m c) 0.58 m d) 0.65 m
13. Body slides down smooth incline 60°. Acceleration?
a) g b) g/2 c) g√3/2 d) g/3
14. Elastic collision: 2 kg at 5 m/s hits stationary 2 kg. Velocity of first mass?
a) 0 b) 5 m/s c) –5 m/s d) 2.5 m/s
15. Magnetic force on charge q moving perpendicular to B:
a) qvB b) qB/v c) v/B d) q/vB
16. Pressure at 10 m depth in water:
a) 1×10⁵ Pa b) 9.8×10⁴ Pa c) 5×10⁴ Pa d) 2×10⁵ Pa
17. Amplitude of SHM doubles. Energy becomes:
a) 2E b) 4E c) E/2 d) E
18. SI unit of electric field:
a) N/C b) C/N c) V d) J
19. Stopping potential in photoelectric effect depends on:
a) Frequency b) Intensity c) Work function only d) Surface area
20. Resistance doubles if length doubles:
a) 2R b) 4R c) R/2 d) R
21. Moment of inertia of solid sphere about diameter:
a) 2/5 MR² b) 2/3 MR² c) MR² d) 1/2 MR²
22. Boyle’s law is valid at:
a) Constant temperature b) Constant pressure c) Constant volume d) Constant entropy
23. Two capacitors 6 μF and 3 μF in series. Effective capacitance?
a) 2 μF b) 9 μF c) 3 μF d) 1 μF
24. Power of convex lens, f = 25 cm:
a) 4 D b) 2 D c) 0.25 D d) 1 D
25. SI unit of magnetic flux:
a) Weber b) Tesla c) Henry d) Coulomb
26. Entropy of isolated system:
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Constant d) Zero
27. Force perpendicular to displacement: work done?
a) Maximum b) Zero c) Minimum d) Infinite
28. Refractive index is ratio of:
a) Speed in vacuum/speed in medium b) Speed in medium/speed in vacuum c) Density ratio d) Angle ratio
29. Charge on electron:
a) 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C b) 1.6×10⁻¹⁸ C c) 1.6×10⁻²⁰ C d) 3.2×10⁻¹⁹ C
30. First law of thermodynamics based on conservation of:
a) Energy b) Momentum c) Mass d) Charge
Section 2 – Chemistry (31–65)
31. Oxidation number of Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇:
a) +3 b) +6 c) +2 d) +4
32. Hybridization of carbon in C₂H₂:
a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) sp³d
33. pH of 0.01 M HCl:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
34. Strongest intermolecular force:
a) Hydrogen bonding b) Van der Waals c) Dipole–dipole d) Covalent bond
35. Coordination number of [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺:
a) 4 b) 6 c) 2 d) 8
36. Strongest oxidizing agent:
a) F₂ b) Cl₂ c) Br₂ d) I₂
37. Example of amphoteric oxide:
a) ZnO b) CaO c) Na₂O d) K₂O
38. Mole fraction of solute in solution:
a) Moles solute/moles solution b) Moles solvent/moles solution c) Mass fraction d) Volume fraction
39. Geometry of NH₃:
a) Trigonal pyramidal b) Tetrahedral c) Linear d) Planar
40. Strong base:
a) NaOH b) NH₄OH c) H₂O d) NH₃
41. Functional group in alcohol:
a) –OH b) –COOH c) –CHO d) –NH₂
42. Empirical formula of glucose:
a) CH₂O b) C₆H₁₂O₆ c) C₂H₄O₂ d) CHO
43. Gas evolved when Zn reacts with HCl:
a) H₂ b) O₂ c) CO₂ d) Cl₂
44. Molecule showing resonance:
a) Benzene b) Ethane c) Methane d) Ethanol
45. Oxidation state of sulfur in H₂SO₄:
a) +4 b) +2 c) +6 d) 0
46. Acid with highest Ka:
a) HClO₄ b) HClO₃ c) HClO₂ d) HClO
47. Reaction forming polymer by condensation:
a) Polyethylene b) Nylon-6,6 c) Teflon d) Polypropylene
48. Example of buffer solution:
a) HCl b) NaOH c) CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa d) H₂SO₄
49. IUPAC name of CH₃–CH₂–OH:
a) Methanol b) Ethanol c) Propanol d) Butanol
50. Strong acid:
a) HCl b) CH₃COOH c) H₂CO₃ d) H₂S
Section 2 – Chemistry (51–65)
51. Gas liberated when Na₂CO₃ reacts with HCl:
a) CO b) CO₂ c) H₂ d) O₂
52. Example of a chelating agent:
a) EDTA b) NaCl c) HCl d) KOH
53. Reaction characteristic of aldehydes:
a) Addition b) Oxidation c) Substitution d) Esterification
54. Example of a strong base:
a) NaOH b) NH₄OH c) H₂O d) NH₃
55. Functional group in carboxylic acid:
a) –OH b) –COOH c) –CHO d) –NH₂
56. Molecules showing geometrical isomerism:
a) C₂H₂ b) C₂H₄ c) C₂H₆ d) C₃H₈
57. Solubility product expression of AgCl:
a) [Ag⁺][Cl⁻] b) [AgCl] c) [Ag⁺]²[Cl⁻]² d) 1/[Ag⁺][Cl⁻]
58. Noble gas:
a) N₂ b) O₂ c) Ne d) Cl₂
59. Avogadro number:
a) 6.023×10²³ b) 6.022×10²³ c) 6.002×10²³ d) 6.220×10²³
60. pH of pure water at 25°C:
a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 5
61. Redox reaction example:
a) Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu b) NaCl + H₂O → NaOH + HCl c) CH₄ + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O d) All of these
62. Example of addition reaction:
a) Ethene + H₂ → Ethane b) CH₄ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + HCl c) Benzene + Br₂ → Bromobenzene d) Esterification
63. Acid with highest proton donating ability:
a) HCl b) H₂SO₄ c) HNO₃ d) HF
64. Type of hybridization in BF₃:
a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) dsp²
65. Example of chain isomerism:
a) Butane b) Methane c) Ethyne d) Propane
Section 3 – Biology (66–100)
66. Functional unit of kidney:
a) Nephron b) Alveolus c) Neuron d) Osteon
67. Universal donor blood group:
a) O⁻ b) AB⁺ c) A⁺ d) B⁻
68. Site of photosynthesis in chloroplast:
a) Stroma b) Thylakoid c) Ribosome d) Nucleus
69. Hormone promoting glycogenesis:
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Adrenaline d) Cortisol
70. Enzyme joining Okazaki fragments:
a) DNA ligase b) DNA polymerase c) Helicase d) Primase
Section 3 – Biology (71–100)
71. C₄ plants initially fix CO₂ into:
a) Pyruvate b) Oxaloacetic acid c) Glucose d) Malate
72. Vitamin deficiency causing pernicious anemia:
a) B₁ b) B₁₂ c) C d) D
73. Pacemaker of human heart:
a) AV node b) SA node c) Bundle of His d) Purkinje fibers
74. Site of photosynthesis in chloroplast:
a) Matrix b) Stroma c) Ribosome d) Nucleus
75. Hormone promoting cell elongation:
a) Auxin b) Ethylene c) Cytokinin d) Abscisic acid
76. First immunoglobulin in primary response:
a) IgA b) IgM c) IgG d) IgE
77. Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium assumes absence of:
a) Mutation b) Natural selection c) Gene flow d) All of these
78. Voluntary action controlled by:
a) Cerebellum b) Cerebrum c) Medulla d) Hypothalamus
79. Primary nitrogenous waste in humans:
a) Ammonia b) Urea c) Uric acid d) Creatinine
80. Site of selective reabsorption in kidney:
a) Bowman’s capsule b) Loop of Henle c) Proximal convoluted tubule d) Glomerulus
81. F₂ phenotypic ratio in incomplete dominance:
a) 3:1 b) 1:2:1 c) 9:3:3:1 d) 2:1
82. Hormone promoting cell elongation:
a) Auxin b) Ethylene c) Cytokinin d) Abscisic acid
83. Retrovirus genetic material:
a) DNA b) RNA c) Both d) Protein
84. Powerhouse of cell:
a) Nucleus b) Ribosome c) Mitochondria d) Golgi
85. Disease caused by Plasmodium:
a) Dengue b) Tuberculosis c) Malaria d) Cholera
86. Bohr effect relates to:
a) Oxygen transport b) Kidney filtration c) Enzyme inhibition d) Hormonal regulation
87. ATP production in mitochondria occurs via:
a) Glycolysis b) Krebs cycle c) Oxidative phosphorylation d) Fermentation
88. Structure connecting fetus to placenta:
a) Chorion b) Amnion c) Umbilical cord d) Yolk sac
89. Double fertilization occurs in:
a) Gymnosperms b) Bryophytes c) Angiosperms d) Pteridophytes
90. Blood clotting component:
a) RBC b) WBC c) Platelets d) Plasma
91. RNA carrying amino acids:
a) mRNA b) rRNA c) tRNA d) snRNA
92. Balance and coordination controlled by:
a) Cerebellum b) Cerebrum c) Medulla d) Pons
93. RuBisCO enzyme is part of:
a) Glycolysis b) Krebs cycle c) Calvin cycle d) Electron transport chain
94. Iodine deficiency causes:
a) Goitre b) Rickets c) Scurvy d) Beriberi
95. Vessel carrying oxygenated blood from lungs:
a) Pulmonary artery b) Aorta c) Pulmonary vein d) Vena cava
96. Metaphase of mitosis shows:
a) Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase
97. Xylem function:
a) Food transport b) Water transport c) Photosynthesis d) Storage
98. Variation in sexually reproducing organisms arises from:
a) Binary fission b) Mutation c) Recombination d) Budding
99. Master endocrine gland:
a) Thyroid b) Adrenal c) Pituitary d) Pancreas
100. Energy flow in ecosystem is:
a) Cyclic b) Bidirectional c) Unidirectional d) Random
Short Disclaimer
This mock paper is for practice and educational purposes only. It is not an official exam paper, and the actual Tamil Nadu Paramedical Entrance Exam may vary in pattern, difficulty, and questions. Use this to improve preparation, problem-solving, and conceptual understanding.
Tamil Nadu Paramedical Entrance Exam – Answer Key (1–100)
| Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer | Q.No | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | 26 | B | 51 | B | 76 | A |
| 2 | C | 27 | D | 52 | A | 77 | D |
| 3 | A | 28 | A | 53 | B | 78 | B |
| 4 | A | 29 | A | 54 | A | 79 | B |
| 5 | A | 30 | A | 55 | B | 80 | C |
| 6 | B | 31 | B | 56 | B | 81 | B |
| 7 | A | 32 | A | 57 | A | 82 | A |
| 8 | B | 33 | A | 58 | C | 83 | B |
| 9 | A | 34 | A | 59 | B | 84 | C |
| 10 | A | 35 | A | 60 | B | 85 | C |
| 11 | A | 36 | A | 61 | A | 86 | A |
| 12 | A | 37 | A | 62 | A | 87 | C |
| 13 | C | 38 | A | 63 | A | 88 | C |
| 14 | C | 39 | A | 64 | B | 89 | C |
| 15 | A | 40 | A | 65 | A | 90 | C |
| 16 | B | 41 | A | 66 | A | 91 | C |
| 17 | B | 42 | A | 67 | A | 92 | A |
| 18 | A | 43 | B | 68 | B | 93 | C |
| 19 | A | 44 | A | 69 | A | 94 | A |
| 20 | B | 45 | A | 70 | A | 95 | C |
| 21 | A | 46 | A | 71 | B | 96 | C |
| 22 | A | 47 | B | 72 | B | 97 | B |
| 23 | B | 48 | C | 73 | B | 98 | C |
| 24 | A | 49 | B | 74 | B | 99 | C |
| 25 | A | 50 | A | 75 | A | 100 | C |