UP Paramedical Entrance Exam Mock Test

Total Questions: 100
Sections:

  1. Physics (1–30)
  2. Chemistry (31–65)
  3. Biology (66–100)

Section 1 – Physics (1–30)

1. A body of mass 2 kg moves with velocity 3 m/s. Its kinetic energy:
a) 9 J b) 6 J c) 12 J d) 18 J

2. A particle executes SHM of amplitude 5 cm and frequency 2 Hz. Maximum velocity:
a) 0.2 m/s b) 0.4 m/s c) 0.5 m/s d) 0.6 m/s

3. Two resistors 10Ω and 20Ω in parallel. Equivalent resistance:
a) 30Ω b) 6.67Ω c) 15Ω d) 10Ω

4. Power of lens 4 D. Focal length:
a) 25 cm b) 20 cm c) 15 cm d) 10 cm

5. Escape velocity from Earth:
a) 11.2 km/s b) 9.8 km/s c) 10 km/s d) 12 km/s

6. Young’s double slit: Increasing distance between slits → fringe width:
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Same d) Quadruples

7. Work done in isothermal expansion of ideal gas:
a) nRT ln(V₂/V₁) b) nRT(V₂−V₁) c) 0 d) nCᵥΔT

8. Capacitor 20 μF charged to 40 V. Energy stored:
a) 0.016 J b) 0.032 J c) 0.04 J d) 0.08 J

9. Magnetic field at center of circular loop carrying current I, radius r:
a) μ₀I/2r b) μ₀I/4r c) μ₀I/πr d) μ₀I/r²

10. Dimensional formula of pressure:
a) ML⁻¹T⁻² b) MLT⁻² c) ML²T⁻² d) MLT⁻¹

11. Half-life 3 hr. Fraction remaining after 6 hr:
a) 1/4 b) 1/2 c) 1/8 d) 3/4

12. Wave frequency 500 Hz, velocity 340 m/s. Wavelength:
a) 0.68 m b) 0.72 m c) 0.58 m d) 0.65 m

13. Body slides down smooth incline 60°. Acceleration:
a) g b) g/2 c) g√3/2 d) g/3

14. Elastic collision: 2 kg at 5 m/s hits stationary 2 kg. Velocity of first mass:
a) 0 b) 5 m/s c) –5 m/s d) 2.5 m/s

15. Magnetic force on charge q moving perpendicular to B:
a) qvB b) qB/v c) v/B d) q/vB

16. Pressure at 10 m depth in water:
a) 1×10⁵ Pa b) 9.8×10⁴ Pa c) 5×10⁴ Pa d) 2×10⁵ Pa

17. Amplitude of SHM doubles. Energy becomes:
a) 2E b) 4E c) E/2 d) E

18. SI unit of electric field:
a) N/C b) C/N c) V d) J

19. Stopping potential in photoelectric effect depends on:
a) Frequency b) Intensity c) Work function only d) Surface area

20. Resistance doubles if length doubles:
a) 2R b) 4R c) R/2 d) R

21. Moment of inertia of solid sphere about diameter:
a) 2/5 MR² b) 2/3 MR² c) MR² d) 1/2 MR²

22. Boyle’s law is valid at:
a) Constant temperature b) Constant pressure c) Constant volume d) Constant entropy

23. Two capacitors 6 μF and 3 μF in series. Effective capacitance:
a) 2 μF b) 9 μF c) 3 μF d) 1 μF

24. Power of convex lens, f = 25 cm:
a) 4 D b) 2 D c) 0.25 D d) 1 D

25. SI unit of magnetic flux:
a) Weber b) Tesla c) Henry d) Coulomb

26. Entropy of isolated system:
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Constant d) Zero

27. Force perpendicular to displacement: work done:
a) Maximum b) Zero c) Minimum d) Infinite

28. Refractive index is ratio of:
a) Speed in vacuum/speed in medium b) Speed in medium/speed in vacuum c) Density ratio d) Angle ratio

29. Charge on electron:
a) 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C b) 1.6×10⁻¹⁸ C c) 1.6×10⁻²⁰ C d) 3.2×10⁻¹⁹ C

30. First law of thermodynamics based on conservation of:
a) Energy b) Momentum c) Mass d) Charge


Section 2 – Chemistry (31–65)

31. Oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄:
a) +7 b) +4 c) +6 d) +2

32. Hybridization of carbon in C₂H₄:
a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) sp³d

33. pH of 0.001 M HCl:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

34. Strongest intermolecular force:
a) Hydrogen bonding b) Van der Waals c) Dipole–dipole d) Covalent bond

35. Coordination number of [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺:
a) 4 b) 6 c) 2 d) 8

36. Strongest oxidizing agent:
a) F₂ b) Cl₂ c) Br₂ d) I₂

37. Example of amphoteric oxide:
a) ZnO b) CaO c) Na₂O d) K₂O

38. Mole fraction of solute in solution:
a) Moles solute/moles solution b) Moles solvent/moles solution c) Mass fraction d) Volume fraction

39. Geometry of NH₃:
a) Trigonal pyramidal b) Tetrahedral c) Linear d) Planar

40. Strong base:
a) NaOH b) NH₄OH c) H₂O d) NH₃

41. Functional group in alcohol:
a) –OH b) –COOH c) –CHO d) –NH₂

42. Empirical formula of glucose:
a) CH₂O b) C₆H₁₂O₆ c) C₂H₄O₂ d) CHO

43. Gas evolved when Zn reacts with HCl:
a) H₂ b) O₂ c) CO₂ d) Cl₂

44. Molecule showing resonance:
a) Benzene b) Ethane c) Methane d) Ethanol

45. Oxidation state of sulfur in H₂SO₄:
a) +4 b) +2 c) +6 d) 0

46. Acid with highest Ka:
a) HClO₄ b) HClO₃ c) HClO₂ d) HClO

47. Reaction forming polymer by condensation:
a) Polyethylene b) Nylon-6,6 c) Teflon d) Polypropylene

48. Example of buffer solution:
a) HCl b) NaOH c) CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa d) H₂SO₄

49. IUPAC name of CH₃–CH₂–OH:
a) Methanol b) Ethanol c) Propanol d) Butanol

50. Strong acid:
a) HCl b) CH₃COOH c) H₂CO₃ d) H₂S

51. Gas liberated when Na₂CO₃ reacts with HCl:
a) CO b) CO₂ c) H₂ d) O₂

52. Example of a chelating agent:
a) EDTA b) NaCl c) HCl d) KOH

53. Reaction characteristic of aldehydes:
a) Addition b) Oxidation c) Substitution d) Esterification

54. Example of a strong base:
a) NaOH b) NH₄OH c) H₂O d) NH₃

55. Functional group in carboxylic acid:
a) –OH b) –COOH c) –CHO d) –NH₂

56. Molecules showing geometrical isomerism:
a) C₂H₂ b) C₂H₄ c) C₂H₆ d) C₃H₈

57. Solubility product expression of AgCl:
a) [Ag⁺][Cl⁻] b) [AgCl] c) [Ag⁺]²[Cl⁻]² d) 1/[Ag⁺][Cl⁻]

58. Noble gas:
a) N₂ b) O₂ c) Ne d) Cl₂

59. Avogadro number:
a) 6.023×10²³ b) 6.022×10²³ c) 6.002×10²³ d) 6.220×10²³

60. pH of pure water at 25°C:
a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 5

61. Redox reaction example:
a) Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu b) NaCl + H₂O → NaOH + HCl c) CH₄ + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O d) All of these

62. Example of addition reaction:
a) Ethene + H₂ → Ethane b) CH₄ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + HCl c) Benzene + Br₂ → Bromobenzene d) Esterification

63. Acid with highest proton donating ability:
a) HCl b) H₂SO₄ c) HNO₃ d) HF

64. Type of hybridization in BF₃:
a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) dsp²

65. Example of chain isomerism:
a) Butane b) Methane c) Ethyne d) Propane


Section 3 – Biology (66–100)

66. Functional unit of kidney:
a) Nephron b) Alveolus c) Neuron d) Osteon

67. Universal donor blood group:
a) O⁻ b) AB⁺ c) A⁺ d) B⁻

68. Site of photosynthesis:
a) Stroma b) Thylakoid c) Ribosome d) Nucleus

69. Hormone promoting glycogenesis:
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Adrenaline d) Cortisol

70. Enzyme joining Okazaki fragments:
a) DNA ligase b) DNA polymerase c) Helicase d) Primase

71. C₄ plants initially fix CO₂ into:
a) Pyruvate b) Oxaloacetic acid c) Glucose d) Malate

72. Vitamin deficiency causing pernicious anemia:
a) B₁ b) B₁₂ c) C d) D

73. Pacemaker of human heart:
a) AV node b) SA node c) Bundle of His d) Purkinje fibers

74. Site of photosynthesis in chloroplast:
a) Matrix b) Stroma c) Ribosome d) Nucleus

75. Hormone promoting cell elongation:
a) Auxin b) Ethylene c) Cytokinin d) Abscisic acid

76. First immunoglobulin in primary response:
a) IgA b) IgM c) IgG d) IgE

77. Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium assumes absence of:
a) Mutation b) Natural selection c) Gene flow d) All of these

78. Voluntary action controlled by:
a) Cerebellum b) Cerebrum c) Medulla d) Hypothalamus

79. Primary nitrogenous waste in humans:
a) Ammonia b) Urea c) Uric acid d) Creatinine

80. Site of selective reabsorption:
a) Bowman’s capsule b) Loop of Henle c) Proximal convoluted tubule d) Glomerulus

81. F₂ phenotypic ratio in incomplete dominance:
a) 3:1 b) 1:2:1 c) 9:3:3:1 d) 2:1

82. Hormone promoting cell elongation:
a) Auxin b) Ethylene c) Cytokinin d) Abscisic acid

83. Retrovirus genetic material:
a) DNA b) RNA c) Both d) Protein

84. Powerhouse of cell:
a) Nucleus b) Ribosome c) Mitochondria d) Golgi

85. Disease caused by Plasmodium:
a) Dengue b) Tuberculosis c) Malaria d) Cholera

86. Bohr effect relates to:
a) Oxygen transport b) Kidney filtration c) Enzyme inhibition d) Hormonal regulation

87. ATP production in mitochondria:
a) Glycolysis b) Krebs cycle c) Oxidative phosphorylation d) Fermentation

88. Structure connecting fetus to placenta:
a) Chorion b) Amnion c) Umbilical cord d) Yolk sac

89. Double fertilization occurs in:
a) Gymnosperms b) Bryophytes c) Angiosperms d) Pteridophytes

90. Blood clotting component:
a) RBC b) WBC c) Platelets d) Plasma

91. RNA carrying amino acids:
a) mRNA b) rRNA c) tRNA d) snRNA

92. Balance and coordination controlled by:
a) Cerebellum b) Cerebrum c) Medulla d) Pons

93. RuBisCO enzyme is in:
a) Glycolysis b) Krebs cycle c) Calvin cycle d) ETC

94. Iodine deficiency causes:
a) Goitre b) Rickets c) Scurvy d) Beriberi

95. Vessel carrying oxygenated blood from lungs:
a) Pulmonary artery b) Aorta c) Pulmonary vein d) Vena cava

96. Metaphase shows:
a) Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase

97. Xylem function:
a) Food transport b) Water transport c) Photosynthesis d) Storage

98. Variation in sexually reproducing organisms arises from:
a) Binary fission b) Mutation c) Recombination d) Budding

99. Master endocrine gland:
a) Thyroid b) Adrenal c) Pituitary d) Pancreas

100. Energy flow in ecosystem:
a) Cyclic b) Bidirectional c) Unidirectional d) Random

Short Disclaimer

This UP Paramedical Entrance Exam mock paper is created for practice and educational purposes only. It is not an official exam paper, and the actual exam pattern, questions, or difficulty may vary. Use it to improve preparation, problem-solving skills, and conceptual understanding.

Full 1–100 Answer Key (Tabular Form)

Q.NoAnswerQ.NoAnswerQ.NoAnswerQ.NoAnswer
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