RBI Grade B Phase 1 Mock Test (200 Questions)

RBI Grade B Phase 1 Mock Test (200 Questions)

RBI Grade B Phase 1 – Actual Exam Pattern

SectionQuestionsMarksTime
General Awareness808025 min
English Language303025 min
Quantitative Aptitude303025 min
Reasoning Ability606045 min
Total200200120 min

RBI Grade B Phase 1 – FULL MOCK TEST (ACTUAL FORMAT)

⏱ Time: 120 Minutes

📊 Total Questions: 200 | Marks: 200

🧾 GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

  1. Each question carries 1 mark
  2. 0.25 marks deducted for each wrong answer
  3. No marks for unanswered questions
  4. Sections have separate timing
  5. Choose the most appropriate option (A–E)

🧠 SECTION 1: GENERAL AWARENESS (80 QUESTIONS)

⏱ Time: 25 Minutes

Q1. The Monetary Policy Committee in India consists of:
(A) 4 members
(B) 5 members
(C) 6 members
(D) 7 members
(E) 8 members

Q2. Repo rate is the rate at which:
(A) RBI borrows from banks
(B) Banks borrow from RBI
(C) Banks lend to customers
(D) Government borrows from RBI
(E) None of these

Q3. Reverse repo rate is used by the Reserve Bank of India to:
(A) Inject liquidity
(B) Absorb liquidity
(C) Control taxation
(D) Increase exports
(E) None of these

Q4. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is maintained with:
(A) Commercial Banks
(B) RBI
(C) Government of India
(D) SEBI
(E) None of these

Q5. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) includes:
(A) Cash
(B) Gold
(C) Government securities
(D) All of the above
(E) None

Q6. The headquarters of RBI is located in:
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
(E) Hyderabad

Q7. RBI was nationalized in the year:
(A) 1935
(B) 1947
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
(E) 1969

Q8. The term “Lender of Last Resort” refers to:
(A) Commercial Banks
(B) RBI
(C) Government
(D) IMF
(E) NABARD

Q9. Open Market Operations involve:
(A) Forex transactions
(B) Buying/selling government securities
(C) Lending to NBFCs
(D) Tax collection
(E) None

Q10. Inflation targeting in India is handled by:
(A) SEBI
(B) MPC
(C) Finance Ministry
(D) NITI Aayog
(E) IMF

Q11. Core inflation excludes:
(A) Food and fuel
(B) Fuel only
(C) Food only
(D) Taxes
(E) None

Q12. Fiscal deficit is defined as:
(A) Revenue – expenditure
(B) Total expenditure – total receipts (excluding borrowings)
(C) Imports – exports
(D) GDP – tax
(E) None

Q13. Primary deficit equals:
(A) Fiscal deficit – interest payments
(B) Fiscal deficit + interest
(C) Revenue deficit – interest
(D) Capital deficit
(E) None

Q14. Capital account convertibility implies:
(A) Free trade
(B) Free movement of capital
(C) Currency printing
(D) Inflation control
(E) None

Q15. GDP at constant prices removes the effect of:
(A) Tax
(B) Subsidy
(C) Inflation
(D) Imports
(E) None

Q16. Which sector contributes the most to India’s GDP?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industry
(C) Services
(D) Mining
(E) None

Q17. Basel norms are related to:
(A) Insurance regulation
(B) Banking supervision
(C) Trade agreements
(D) Tax policy
(E) None

Q18. Liquidity Adjustment Facility includes:
(A) Repo
(B) Reverse Repo
(C) Both A & B
(D) CRR
(E) None

Q19. Twin deficit refers to:
(A) Fiscal & Current Account deficit
(B) Revenue & Capital deficit
(C) Trade & Budget deficit
(D) Tax & GDP gap
(E) None

Q20. Inflation target in India is:
(A) 2% ±1
(B) 4% ±2
(C) 5% ±1
(D) 6% ±2
(E) None

Q21. Headquarters of International Monetary Fund is in:
(A) Geneva
(B) Washington DC
(C) Paris
(D) London
(E) Rome

Q22. SDR is issued by:
(A) RBI
(B) IMF
(C) World Bank
(D) BIS
(E) WTO

Q23. World Bank mainly provides:
(A) Short-term loans
(B) Long-term development loans
(C) Trade finance
(D) Currency swaps
(E) None

Q24. FATF deals with:
(A) Trade liberalization
(B) Anti-money laundering
(C) Climate policy
(D) Tax reforms
(E) None

Q25. BIS headquarters is located in:
(A) Paris
(B) Basel
(C) Geneva
(D) Vienna
(E) London

SECTION 1: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q26–Q80)

Q26. A Non-Performing Asset (NPA) is a loan where interest or principal is overdue for:
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 120 days
(E) 180 days

Q27. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is related to:
(A) Liquidity management
(B) Bank capital vs risk-weighted assets
(C) Inflation control
(D) Taxation
(E) None of these

Q28. Priority Sector Lending (PSL) includes:
(A) Agriculture
(B) MSMEs
(C) Export credit
(D) All of the above
(E) None

Q29. Which institution regulates mutual funds in India?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IRDAI
(D) PFRDA
(E) NABARD

Q30. A Payment Bank can:
(A) Issue loans
(B) Accept deposits up to a limit
(C) Issue credit cards
(D) Provide forex loans
(E) None

Q31. RTGS stands for:
(A) Real Time Gross Settlement
(B) Rapid Transfer Global System
(C) Real Transfer Grid System
(D) Reserve Transfer Gross System
(E) None

Q32. NEFT transactions are settled:
(A) Individually in real-time
(B) In batches
(C) Weekly
(D) Monthly
(E) Offline

Q33. UPI is developed by:
(A) RBI
(B) NPCI
(C) SEBI
(D) SBI
(E) IMF

Q34. Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is:
(A) Cryptocurrency
(B) Legal tender issued by central bank
(C) Private digital money
(D) Token currency
(E) None

Q35. Yield curve inversion indicates:
(A) Economic boom
(B) Recession signal
(C) Inflation spike
(D) Fiscal surplus
(E) None

Q36. NBFCs are regulated by:
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IRDAI
(D) Ministry of Finance
(E) None

Q37. Small Finance Banks primarily serve:
(A) Large corporates
(B) Small borrowers
(C) Government
(D) Foreign investors
(E) None

Q38. Repo Linked Lending Rate (RLLR) is directly linked to:
(A) Inflation
(B) Repo rate
(C) GDP
(D) CRR
(E) None

Q39. Standing Deposit Facility is used to:
(A) Inject liquidity
(B) Absorb liquidity without collateral
(C) Increase lending
(D) Control tax
(E) None

Q40. Fiscal policy is implemented by:
(A) RBI
(B) Government
(C) IMF
(D) SEBI
(E) None

Q41. Stagflation refers to:
(A) High growth + low inflation
(B) Low growth + high inflation
(C) High growth + high inflation
(D) Low growth + low inflation
(E) None

Q42. Disinvestment means:
(A) Buying shares
(B) Selling government stake in PSUs
(C) Increasing taxes
(D) Borrowing funds
(E) None

Q43. Green bonds are issued for:
(A) Defence projects
(B) Infrastructure
(C) Environmental projects
(D) Banking reforms
(E) None

Q44. Blue economy relates to:
(A) Agriculture
(B) Ocean resources
(C) Industry
(D) Banking
(E) None

Q45. Sovereign Wealth Fund is:
(A) Private fund
(B) Government-owned investment fund
(C) Bank deposit
(D) Insurance fund
(E) None

Q46. Current account includes:
(A) Trade in goods & services
(B) Capital flows
(C) FDI
(D) Loans
(E) None

Q47. Trade deficit occurs when:
(A) Exports > Imports
(B) Imports > Exports
(C) Both equal
(D) No trade
(E) None

Q48. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is used to compare:
(A) GDP
(B) Inflation
(C) Currency value
(D) Tax
(E) None

Q49. Human Development Index (HDI) is published by:
(A) IMF
(B) UNDP
(C) World Bank
(D) WHO
(E) None

Q50. HDI includes:
(A) Income
(B) Education
(C) Life expectancy
(D) All of the above
(E) None

Q51. Monetary tightening involves:
(A) Lowering rates
(B) Increasing rates
(C) Printing money
(D) Tax cuts
(E) None

Q52. Quantitative easing means:
(A) Increasing taxes
(B) Buying securities
(C) Selling gold
(D) Increasing CRR
(E) None

Q53. An open economy allows:
(A) No trade
(B) Free trade & capital flow
(C) Only exports
(D) Only imports
(E) None

Q54. External debt refers to:
(A) Domestic borrowing
(B) Foreign borrowing
(C) Tax revenue
(D) GDP
(E) None

Q55. MSF stands for:
(A) Marginal Standing Facility
(B) Monetary Stability Fund
(C) Market Support Fund
(D) Money Supply Factor
(E) None

Q56. Banking Ombudsman handles:
(A) Tax disputes
(B) Customer complaints
(C) Trade issues
(D) Loans
(E) None

Q57. Financial Inclusion Index is released by:
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IMF
(D) NABARD
(E) None

Q58. PSL target for banks is around:
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
(E) 60%

Q59. Demand-pull inflation is caused by:
(A) Low demand
(B) High demand
(C) Low supply
(D) Taxes
(E) None

Q60. Cost-push inflation arises due to:
(A) High demand
(B) Increased production cost
(C) Low GDP
(D) High exports
(E) None

Q61. Fiscal stimulus means:
(A) Tax increase
(B) Govt spending increase
(C) Rate hike
(D) Export ban
(E) None

Q62. Crowding out effect occurs when:
(A) Govt borrowing reduces private investment
(B) Taxes increase
(C) Inflation rises
(D) Imports rise
(E) None

Q63. Capital formation refers to:
(A) Consumption
(B) Investment in assets
(C) Taxation
(D) Imports
(E) None

Q64. Net exports =
(A) Exports + Imports
(B) Exports – Imports
(C) Imports – Exports
(D) GDP – Tax
(E) None

Q65. Balance of Payments consists of:
(A) Current account
(B) Capital account
(C) Both
(D) Fiscal account
(E) None

Q66. Bretton Woods institutions include:
(A) IMF
(B) World Bank
(C) Both
(D) WTO
(E) None

Q67. Gold reserves are held by:
(A) Commercial banks
(B) RBI
(C) SEBI
(D) Govt
(E) None

Q68. Currency depreciation means:
(A) Value rises
(B) Value falls
(C) No change
(D) Inflation
(E) None

Q69. Currency appreciation leads to:
(A) Cheaper imports
(B) Costly imports
(C) Inflation
(D) None
(E) Both

Q70. Bond prices and yields are:
(A) Directly related
(B) Inversely related
(C) Equal
(D) Random
(E) None

Q71. Treasury Bills are issued for:
(A) Long term
(B) Short term
(C) Medium term
(D) Permanent
(E) None

Q72. Credit rating agencies assess:
(A) GDP
(B) Creditworthiness
(C) Inflation
(D) Trade
(E) None

Q73. Financial Stability Report is published by:
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IMF
(D) Govt
(E) None

Q74. Monetary Policy Committee meets:
(A) Monthly
(B) Quarterly
(C) Bi-monthly
(D) Weekly
(E) Annually

Q75. Repo transmission means:
(A) Rate change impacts loans
(B) Tax change
(C) Inflation rise
(D) Export growth
(E) None

Q76. Liquidity trap occurs when:
(A) High interest
(B) Very low interest, no demand
(C) High GDP
(D) Inflation
(E) None

Q77. Currency swap involves:
(A) Gold trade
(B) Exchange of currencies
(C) Loans
(D) Bonds
(E) None

Q78. Inflation expectations affect:
(A) Spending behavior
(B) GDP only
(C) Imports
(D) Taxes
(E) None

Q79. Real interest rate =
(A) Nominal – Inflation
(B) Nominal + Inflation
(C) GDP – Tax
(D) None
(E) Equal

Q80. Which of the following best defines financial stability?
(A) No inflation
(B) Stable financial system
(C) High GDP
(D) Low tax
(E) None

SECTION 2: ENGLISH LANGUAGE (Q81–Q110)

⏱ Time: 25 Minutes

📘 Directions (Q81–Q90):

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.

Passage:
Central banks in emerging economies face increasing challenges in balancing inflation control with economic growth. While tightening monetary policy can reduce inflationary pressures, it may also slow down investment and consumption. On the other hand, loose monetary conditions may boost growth temporarily but risk long-term instability. Therefore, central banks must carefully calibrate their policy tools, considering both domestic and global factors such as capital flows, exchange rate volatility, and geopolitical risks.

Q81. What is the primary theme of the passage?
(A) Trade policies
(B) Inflation vs growth trade-off
(C) Banking fraud
(D) Tax reforms
(E) None of these

Q82. Tight monetary policy generally leads to:
(A) Increased inflation
(B) Reduced investment
(C) Higher exports
(D) Currency depreciation
(E) None

Q83. Loose monetary policy may:
(A) Reduce GDP
(B) Increase long-term stability
(C) Boost growth temporarily
(D) Decrease liquidity
(E) None

Q84. Which factor is NOT mentioned in the passage?
(A) Capital flows
(B) Exchange rates
(C) Geopolitical risks
(D) Fiscal deficit
(E) None

Q85. The tone of the passage is:
(A) Critical
(B) Analytical
(C) Emotional
(D) Humorous
(E) Narrative

Q86. “Calibrate” in the passage means:
(A) Ignore
(B) Adjust carefully
(C) Increase rapidly
(D) Eliminate
(E) None

Q87. Which of the following is TRUE?
(A) Inflation control has no effect on growth
(B) Monetary policy impacts both growth and inflation
(C) Only global factors matter
(D) Central banks ignore risks
(E) None

Q88. The passage suggests central banks should:
(A) Focus only on growth
(B) Focus only on inflation
(C) Balance multiple objectives
(D) Avoid global factors
(E) None

Q89. “Volatility” refers to:
(A) Stability
(B) Fluctuation
(C) Growth
(D) Decline
(E) None

Q90. Which is closest to “geopolitical”?
(A) Economic
(B) Political + geographic
(C) Financial
(D) Social
(E) None

🔎 Directions (Q91–Q95): Error Detection

Q91. The RBI have increased interest rates.
(A) The RBI
(B) have
(C) increased
(D) interest rates
(E) No error

Q92. Inflation are rising rapidly in recent months.
(A) Inflation
(B) are
(C) rising
(D) rapidly
(E) No error

Q93. The committee has took an important decision.
(A) The committee
(B) has
(C) took
(D) important decision
(E) No error

Q94. Data shows a upward trend in prices.
(A) Data
(B) shows
(C) a upward
(D) trend
(E) No error

Q95. Banks is facing liquidity pressure currently.
(A) Banks
(B) is
(C) facing
(D) liquidity pressure
(E) No error

🧩 Directions (Q96–Q105): Cloze Test

Central banks ___(96) inflation while ___(97) economic growth. They often ___(98) interest rates to control demand. However, such measures can ___(99) borrowing and ___(100) investment. Therefore, policymakers must ___(101) decisions carefully. Global conditions also ___(102) domestic policy choices. Sudden capital flows can ___(103) exchange rates and ___(104) financial stability. Hence, maintaining balance is ___(105).

Q96.
(A) ignore
(B) control
(C) increase
(D) avoid
(E) reject

Q97.
(A) harming
(B) supporting
(C) stopping
(D) reducing
(E) ignoring

Q98.
(A) raise
(B) cut
(C) fix
(D) freeze
(E) remove

Q99.
(A) increase
(B) reduce
(C) eliminate
(D) boost
(E) create

Q100.
(A) encourage
(B) reduce
(C) increase
(D) double
(E) expand

Q101.
(A) delay
(B) take
(C) ignore
(D) reject
(E) postpone

Q102.
(A) isolate
(B) influence
(C) avoid
(D) reduce
(E) remove

Q103.
(A) stabilize
(B) disrupt
(C) improve
(D) fix
(E) control

Q104.
(A) reduce
(B) improve
(C) threaten
(D) increase
(E) eliminate

Q105.
(A) optional
(B) critical
(C) useless
(D) minor
(E) irrelevant

🔀 Directions (Q106–Q110): Para Jumble

(A) Monetary policy ensures price stability
(B) It influences inflation levels
(C) Central banks use various tools
(D) These tools affect economic growth

Q106. Correct sequence:
(A) C-A-B-D
(B) A-B-C-D
(C) C-D-A-B
(D) B-A-C-D
(E) A-C-B-D

Q107. First sentence:
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) None

Q108. Last sentence:
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) None

Q109. Second sentence:
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) None

Q110. Third sentence:
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) None

SECTION 3: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (Q111–Q140)

⏱ Time: 25 Minutes

📊 Directions (Q111–Q115): Data Interpretation

A company’s revenue (₹ crore) over 5 years is given below:

YearRevenue
2019500
2020550
2021495
2022594
2023665

Q111. Approximate percentage increase from 2019 to 2023:
(A) 25%
(B) 30%
(C) 33%
(D) 40%
(E) 45%

Q112. Percentage decrease from 2020 to 2021:
(A) 5%
(B) 8%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%
(E) 15%

Q113. Average revenue (approx):
(A) 540
(B) 560
(C) 580
(D) 600
(E) 620

Q114. Growth from 2021 to 2022 is approximately:
(A) 15%
(B) 18%
(C) 20%
(D) 22%
(E) 25%

Q115. Ratio of 2019 to 2023 revenue:
(A) 3:4
(B) 4:5
(C) 5:6
(D) 6:7
(E) 7:8

📊 Directions (Q116–Q120): Data Interpretation (Caselet)

A firm invests ₹10,000 at compound interest annually:

Year 1: +10%
Year 2: +20%
Year 3: –10%

Q116. Value after 1st year:
(A) 11000
(B) 11200
(C) 12000
(D) 10500
(E) 10800

Q117. Value after 2nd year:
(A) 12000
(B) 13200
(C) 13500
(D) 14000
(E) 12500

Q118. Final value after 3rd year:
(A) 11880
(B) 12000
(C) 12500
(D) 13000
(E) 11500

Q119. Net percentage change over 3 years:
(A) 10%
(B) 12%
(C) 15%
(D) 18%
(E) 20%

Q120. Profit amount:
(A) 1000
(B) 1200
(C) 1500
(D) 1800
(E) 2000

🔢 Arithmetic (Q121–Q140)

Q121. A sum doubles in 5 years at compound interest. Rate ≈
(A) 12%
(B) 14%
(C) 15%
(D) 18%
(E) 20%

Q122. Profit = ₹240, Cost = ₹800. Profit % =
(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 30%
(D) 35%
(E) 40%

Q123. A can do work in 10 days, B in 15 days. Together?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) 9

Q124. Speed = 60 km/h, time = 2.5 hr. Distance =
(A) 120
(B) 140
(C) 150
(D) 160
(E) 180

Q125. A mixture has milk:water = 3:2. If 10L water added, ratio becomes 3:4. Original milk?
(A) 15
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 24
(E) 30

Q126. Ratio of A:B = 5:7, sum = 240. A =
(A) 80
(B) 90
(C) 100
(D) 110
(E) 120

Q127. A invests 10000, B invests 20000. Profit ratio?
(A) 1:2
(B) 2:1
(C) 3:2
(D) 2:3
(E) 1:1

Q128. SI on ₹2000 at 10% for 2 years =
(A) 200
(B) 300
(C) 400
(D) 500
(E) 600

Q129. Probability of getting head in one toss =
(A) 0
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.75
(E) 1

Q130. 5! =
(A) 60
(B) 100
(C) 120
(D) 150
(E) 200

Q131. Remainder when 17² ÷ 5 =
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 0

Q132. √1600 =
(A) 30
(B) 35
(C) 40
(D) 45
(E) 50

Q133. Solve: x² – 9 = 0
(A) ±3
(B) ±9
(C) 3 only
(D) -3 only
(E) None

Q134. If x > y and y > z, then:
(A) x < z
(B) x > z
(C) x = z
(D) Cannot determine
(E) None

Q135. 48 ÷ 6 × 2 =
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
(E) 24

Q136. 25% of 400 =
(A) 50
(B) 75
(C) 100
(D) 125
(E) 150

Q137. 2³ × 2⁴ =
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 32
(D) 64
(E) 128

Q138. If 3x = 27, x =
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 12
(E) 18

Q139. Average of 10, 20, 30 =
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
(E) 35

Q140. Simplify: 1000 × 0.5 =
(A) 200
(B) 300
(C) 400
(D) 500
(E) 600

SECTION 4: REASONING ABILITY (Q141–Q200)

⏱ Time: 45 Minutes

🧠 Directions (Q141–Q150): Circular Seating Arrangement

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the center.

  • A sits third to the left of B
  • C is opposite A
  • D sits immediate right of C
  • E is between D and F
  • G sits second to the right of F

Q141. Who sits opposite E?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) G

Q142. Who is immediate left of B?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
(E) F

Q143. Who sits between E and G?
(A) F
(B) A
(C) D
(D) B
(E) C

Q144. What is position of F with respect to A?
(A) Immediate right
(B) Second right
(C) Immediate left
(D) Opposite
(E) Third left

Q145. Who sits immediate right of D?
(A) E
(B) F
(C) G
(D) H
(E) A

Q146. Who sits second to the left of C?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) G
(D) H
(E) E

Q147. Which pair sits opposite each other?
(A) A–C
(B) B–E
(C) D–G
(D) F–H
(E) None

Q148. Who sits immediate right of G?
(A) F
(B) E
(C) A
(D) H
(E) B

Q149. How many persons sit between A and D?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) None

Q150. Who sits immediate left of H?
(A) G
(B) F
(C) A
(D) D
(E) B

🏢 Directions (Q151–Q160): Floor Puzzle

Seven persons live on seven different floors (1 lowest to 7 highest).

  • A lives above C but below F
  • B lives on an even-numbered floor
  • D lives immediately above E
  • G lives on the top floor
  • C lives on floor 2

Q151. Who lives on floor 7?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) G
(D) F
(E) D

Q152. Who lives immediately above E?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) D
(D) F
(E) G

Q153. Floor of A?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7

Q154. Who lives on floor 2?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) B
(E) A

Q155. Who lives below A?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
(E) F

Q156. Who lives immediately below F?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E

Q157. Which floor is occupied by B?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
(E) 5

Q158. Who lives on floor 1?
(A) E
(B) B
(C) D
(D) A
(E) F

Q159. Who lives between A and F?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) None
(E) E

Q160. Which pair is correct?
(A) A–5
(B) B–4
(C) C–2
(D) D–6
(E) G–7

🔐 Coding-Decoding (Q161–Q165)

Q161. BANK → 21314, LOAN → 151114, then CODE → ?
(A) 31545
(B) 31544
(C) 31445
(D) 31444
(E) None

Q162. If CAT = DBU, DOG = EPH, then RAT = ?
(A) SBU
(B) QZS
(C) SBV
(D) SBT
(E) None

Q163. If FLOWER → WOLFRE, then TABLE → ?
(A) ELBAT
(B) BATEL
(C) ETBAL
(D) BTAEL
(E) None

Q164. If 123 → 6, 234 → 9, then 345 → ?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
(E) 14

Q165. If PEN → 35, BOOK → 43, then COPY → ?
(A) 60
(B) 61
(C) 62
(D) 63
(E) 64

🔄 Input-Output (Q166–Q170)

Input: 8 3 9 1 5 7

Step I: 1 8 3 9 5 7
Step II: 1 3 8 5 9 7
Step III: 1 3 5 8 7 9

Q166. Step IV:
(A) 1 3 5 7 8 9
(B) 1 3 5 7 9 8
(C) 1 3 5 8 9 7
(D) 1 5 3 7 8 9
(E) None

Q167. Final output:
(A) Sorted ascending
(B) Sorted descending
(C) Random
(D) Alternating
(E) None

Q168. Which number moves most?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
(E) 9

Q169. Position of 8 in final step:
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

Q170. Pattern followed:
(A) Bubble sort
(B) Selection sort
(C) Random
(D) Reverse
(E) None

📐 Syllogism (Q171–Q175)

Statements:
All bonds are assets
Some assets are risky
No risky is safe

Q171. Some bonds are not safe
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Cannot be determined
(D) Only I follows
(E) None

Q172. Some assets are safe
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Cannot be determined
(D) Only II follows
(E) None

Q173. No bond is safe
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Cannot be determined
(D) Both follow
(E) None

Q174. Some risky are assets
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Cannot be determined
(D) None
(E) All

Q175. Conclusion validity:
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both
(D) Neither
(E) None

🔢 Inequality (Q176–Q180)

A > B ≥ C < D ≤ E

Q176. Which is definitely true?
(A) A > C
(B) B < E
(C) D > A
(D) C > A
(E) None

Q177. Which may be true?
(A) A = E
(B) B > D
(C) C = D
(D) E < B
(E) None

Q178. Which is false?
(A) A > B
(B) B ≥ C
(C) C < D
(D) D ≤ E
(E) None

Q179. Relation between A and D?
(A) A > D
(B) A < D
(C) Cannot determine
(D) Equal
(E) None

Q180. Relation between C and E?
(A) C < E
(B) C > E
(C) Equal
(D) Cannot determine
(E) None

👨‍👩‍👧 Blood Relation (Q181–Q185)

Q181. A is father of B. B is sister of C. C is son of D. D is mother of A. How is B related to D?
(A) Daughter
(B) Granddaughter
(C) Sister
(D) Mother
(E) None

Q182. X is brother of Y. Y is mother of Z. Relation of X to Z?
(A) Uncle
(B) Father
(C) Brother
(D) Grandfather
(E) None

Q183. A woman introduces a man as son of her brother. Man is her?
(A) Son
(B) Nephew
(C) Brother
(D) Cousin
(E) None

Q184. P is mother of Q. Q is father of R. Relation P to R?
(A) Grandmother
(B) Mother
(C) Sister
(D) Aunt
(E) None

Q185. A is husband of B. B is sister of C. C is mother of D. A is to D?
(A) Father
(B) Uncle
(C) Grandfather
(D) Brother
(E) None

🧠 Critical Reasoning (Q186–Q200)

Q186. Statement: Inflation rising → RBI raises rates
Assumption:
(A) Rates control inflation
(B) Inflation irrelevant
(C) Growth unaffected
(D) None
(E) All

Q187. Strengthen:
(A) Rate hike reduces demand
(B) Demand unaffected
(C) Growth rises
(D) None
(E) All

Q188. Weaken:
(A) Inflation due to supply shocks
(B) Demand high
(C) Growth stable
(D) None
(E) All

CRITICAL REASONING (Q189–Q200)

Q189.
Statement: The central bank has increased interest rates to control inflation.
Which of the following weakens the statement?
(A) Inflation is caused by supply shocks
(B) Demand in the economy is rising
(C) Interest rates affect borrowing
(D) Inflation is moderate
(E) None of these

Q190.
Statement: Digital payments have increased financial inclusion in rural areas.
Which assumption is implicit?
(A) Rural population uses digital devices
(B) Banks are closing branches
(C) Only urban areas use digital payments
(D) Cash usage has increased
(E) None

Q191.
Statement: High fiscal deficit leads to inflation.
Which strengthens the statement?
(A) Government spending increases demand
(B) Taxes are reduced
(C) Imports increase
(D) Currency stabilizes
(E) None

Q192.
Statement: A company increased prices but sales remained unchanged.
What can be inferred?
(A) Demand is inelastic
(B) Demand is elastic
(C) Supply increased
(D) Profit decreased
(E) None

Q193.
Statement: RBI reduces repo rate to boost growth.
Which assumption is correct?
(A) Lower rates increase borrowing
(B) Inflation rises
(C) Savings increase
(D) Imports decrease
(E) None

Q194.
Statement: Online education platforms are growing rapidly.
Which weakens the statement?
(A) Internet access is limited in rural areas
(B) Students prefer online classes
(C) Technology adoption is increasing
(D) Costs are lower
(E) None

Q195.
Statement: Inflation targeting helps stabilize the economy.
Which strengthens the statement?
(A) Stable inflation improves investment
(B) Inflation fluctuates
(C) GDP falls
(D) Taxes increase
(E) None

Q196.
Statement: Banks are reducing lending due to rising NPAs.
Which assumption is implicit?
(A) NPAs affect bank profitability
(B) Lending increases NPAs
(C) Borrowers repay loans
(D) Banks ignore risks
(E) None

Q197.
Statement: Government increased taxes on luxury goods.
What is the most likely effect?
(A) Demand may fall
(B) Demand rises
(C) Supply decreases
(D) Imports rise
(E) None

Q198.
Statement: Exchange rate depreciation boosts exports.
Which strengthens the statement?
(A) Exports become cheaper globally
(B) Imports become cheaper
(C) Inflation falls
(D) GDP declines
(E) None

Q199.
Statement: Financial literacy improves savings behavior.
Which assumption is implicit?
(A) People lack awareness about finance
(B) Savings reduce income
(C) Spending increases
(D) Banks reduce rates
(E) None

Q200.
Statement: Increasing interest rates reduces inflation.
Which is a valid conclusion?
(A) Borrowing becomes costly
(B) Demand increases
(C) Supply rises
(D) Taxes fall
(E) None

ANSWER KEY (Q1–Q200)

QAnsQAnsQAnsQAns
1B2B3B4B
5D6B7C8B
9B10B11A12B
13A14B15C16C
17B18C19A20B
21B22B23B24B
25B26C27B28D
29B30B31A32B
33B34B35B36A
37B38B39B40B
41B42B43C44B
45B46A47B48C
49B50D51B52B
53B54B55A56B
57A58C59B60B
61B62A63B64B
65C66C67B68B
69A70B71B72B
73A74C75A76B
77B78A79A80B

ENGLISH (Q81–110)

QAnsQAnsQAnsQAns
81B82B83C84D
85B86B87B88C
89B90B91B92B
93C94C95B96B
97A98A99B100B
101B102B103B104C
105B106A107C108D
109A110B————

QUANT (Q111–140)

QAnsQAnsQAnsQAns
111C112C113B114C
115B116A117B118A
119B120A121C122C
123B124C125C126C
127A128C129C130C
131B132C133A134B
135D136C137D138A
139B140D————

REASONING (Q141–200)

QAnsQAnsQAnsQAns
141C142A143C144B
145A146E147C148B
149B150—151C152C
153C154A155B156D
157C158A159D160C
161A162D163A164C
165C166A167A168A
169D170A171C172A
173C174C175C176A
177A178E179C180D
181B182A183B184A
185A186A187A188A
189A190A191A192A
193A194A195A196A
197A198A199A200A

Disclaimer

This mock test is an original practice set created for educational purposes only and is not affiliated with or endorsed by the Reserve Bank of India. Questions are designed based on the latest exam pattern and previous trends for practice use only.